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810-403 dumps

QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
810-403 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

810-403 dumps

QUESTION 3
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? (Choose two.)
A. Advanced Routing

B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which two options are part of the five steps approach needed to conduct a stakeholder analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Define ways to move stakeholders from their current to future position.
B. Identifycustomer stakeholders.
C. Define absolute power and interest of stakeholders.
D. Generate consensus among stakeholders.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
810-403 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

810-403 dumps

810-403 dumps

QUESTION 9
Which framework can give the best insight and visual flow into how a customer\’s functions work together, to go from parts inventory through shipped product?
A. business model canvas
B. porters value chain
C. critical success factor
D. organization chart
810-403 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 12
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION13  A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host? (Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
810-403 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION 14 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department. The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made. Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B
QUESTION 15 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories. A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred from Element manager to CallServer.
810-403 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution. They plan to have the system support 50,000 users. Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)

D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D
QUESTION 17 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
810-403 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 18 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller card with one high density DSP daughter board. How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D
QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099). Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customers requirements?
A. 2001-2008

B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
810-403 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 20 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D
QUESTION 21 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed. What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots. D.
The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
810-403 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 22 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking issue. Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

810-403 dumps

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