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Exam: 100-105 Question Online 1 / 13

Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1)
Exam Price: $165 USD
Duration: 90 minutes
Number of Questions: 45-55
Passing Score: Variable (750-850 / 1000 Approx.)

Last date to test: February 23, 2020!
The 100-105 ICND1 exam will be retired on February 23, 2020.

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1?
(Choose three.)

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q1

A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in
the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC
address.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 2
Which protocol verifies connectivity between two switches that are configured with IP addresses in the same network?
A. ICMP
B. STP
C. VTP
D. HSRP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Host B has just been added to the network and must acquire an IP address. Which two addresses
are possible addresses that will allow host B to communicate with other devices in the network? (Choose two.)

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q3

A. 192.168.10.32
B. 192.168.10.38
C. 192.168.10.46
D. 192.168.10.47
E. 192.168.10.49
F. 192.168.10.51
Correct Answer: BC
The IP address of host B must be in the range of 192.168.10.32/28 subnet, which ranges from 192.168.10.32 to
192.168.10.47 (Increment: 16), except the IP addresses of 192.168.10.32, 192.168.10.46 (which are the network and
broadcast addresses of the subnet), 192.168.10.33, 192.168.10.34 (which have been assigned to the interface\\’s router
and the switch). Therefore, there are only two IP addresses of 192.168.10.38 and 192.168.10.46.

QUESTION 4
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
A. routing protocol code
B. prefix
C. metric
D. network mask
Correct Answer: D
IP Routing Table Entry Types
An entry in the IP routing table contains the following information in the order presented:
Network ID. The network ID or destination corresponding to the route. The network ID can be class-based, subnet, or
supernet network ID, or an IP address for a host route.
Network Mask. The mask that is used to match a destination IP address to the network ID.
Next Hop. The IP address of the next hop.
Interface. An indication of which network interface is used to forward the IP packet.
Metric. A number used to indicate the cost of the route so the best route among possible multiple routes to the same
destination can be selected. A common use of the metric is to indicate the number of hops (routers crossed) to the
network
ID.
Routing table entries can be used to store the following types of routes:
Directly Attached Network IDs.
Routes for network IDs that are directly attached. For directly attached networks, the Next Hop field can be blank or
contain the IP address of the interface on that network.
Remote Network IDs.
Routes for network IDs that are not directly attached but are available across other routers. For remote networks, the
Next Hop field is the IP address of a local router in between the forwarding node and the remote network.
Host Routes.
A route to a specific IP address.
Host routes allow routing to occur on a per- IP address basis. For host routes, the network ID is the IP address of the
specified host and the network mask is 255.255.255.255.
Default Route.
The default route is designed to be used when a more specific network ID or host route is not found. The default route
network ID is 0.0.0.0 with the network mask of 0.0.0.0.

QUESTION 5
Which condition is most important to support the use of syslog messages for troubleshooting?
A. Messages are logged to a UNIX-based server.
B. The router has a large internal buffer space.
C. NTP is in use to ensure accurate timestamps.
D. Messages are logged to a Cisco UCS Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q6

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show
interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down. Given the partial output
for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q7-2

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has added host A to the network. Host A cannot communicate on the network.
A ping that is issued on the host to address 127.0.0.1 fails. What is the problem?

Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 exam questions q8

A. The router is not forwarding the ping packets to network 127.0.0.0.
B. The remote host at 127.0.0.1 is unreachable.
C. The default gateway is incorrect.
D. The IP address of host A is incorrect.
E. The TCP/IP protocols are not loaded.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which statement about the enable password is true?
A. The space character is not supported.
B. It is not stored in a secured format.
C. It can be up to 32 characters long.
D. It is stored in a secured format.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/command/reference/fsecur_r/srfpass.html

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the switchport command?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address
0018.DE8B.4BF8
A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port that is
being configured.
B. It informs the switch that traffic destined for MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 should only be sent to the port that is
being configured.
C. It will act like an access list and the port will filter packets that have a source or destination MAC of
0018.DE8B.4BF8.
D. The switch will shut down the port of any traffic with source MAC address of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
A. MD5
B. PSK
C. AH
D. ESP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which statement describes dynamic routing correctly?
A. more secure than static
B. high scaling for large network
C. easier to configure than static route
D. built for small networks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Correct Answer: D
IPv6 Address Notation
IPv6 addresses are denoted by eight groups of hexadecimal quartets separated by colons in between them.
Following is an example of a valid IPv6 address:
2001:cdba:0000:0000:0000:0000:3257:9652
Any four-digit group of zeroes within an IPv6 address may be reduced to a single zero or altogether omitted.
Therefore, the following IPv6 addresses are similar and equally valid:
2001:cdba:0000:0000:0000:0000:3257:9652
2001:cdba:0:0:0:0:3257:9652
2001:cdba::3257:9652
The URL for the above address will be of the form:
http://[2001:cdba:0000:0000:0000:0000:3257:9652]/
http://www.ipv6.com/articles/general/IPv6-Addressing.htm

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The practice test for exam 70-742 Identity with Windows Server 2016

The best way to prepare for the 70-742 exam is not to read 70-742 textbooks, but to practice 70-742 questions and understand the correct answers.

QUESTION 1
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named fabrikam.com and contoso.com. Each forest contains a single
domain.
Contoso.com has a Group Policy object (GPO) named Cont_GPO1.
You need to apply the settings from Cont_GPO1 to the computers in fabrikam.com.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct section is worth one point.
A. Back up Cont_GPO1. In fabrikam.com, create and link a new GPO by using the Group Policy Management Console
(GPMC), and then run the Import Setting Wizard.
B. Back up Cont_GPO1. In fabrikam.com, run the Restore-GPO cmdlet, and then run the New-GPLink cmdlet.
C. Back up Cont_GPO1. In fabrikam.com run the Import-GPO cmdlet, and then run the New-GPLink cmdlet.
D. Copy\\contoso.com\SysVol\contoso.com\Policies to \\fabrikam.com\SysVol\ fabrikam.com\Policies. In fabrikam.com,
run the New-GPLink cmdlet.
E. Back up Cont_GPO1. In fabrikam.com, create and link a new GPO by using the Group Policy Management Console
(GPMC), and then run the Restore Group Policy Object Wizard.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain.
You have a user account that is a member of the Domain Admins group.
You have 100 laptops that have a standard corporate image installed. The laptops are in workgroups and have random
names.
A technician named Tech1 is assigned the task of joining the laptops to the domain. The computer accounts of each
laptop must be in an organizational unit (OU) that is associated to the department of the user who will use the laptop.
The
laptop names must start with four characters indicating the department, followed by a four-digit number.
Tech1 is a member of the Domain Users group only. Tech1 has the administrator logon credentials for all the laptops.
You need Tech1 to join the laptops to the domain. The solution must ensure that the laptops are named correctly, and
the computer accounts of the laptops are in the correct OUs.
Solution: You instruct Tech1 to sign in to each laptop, to rename each laptop by using System in Control Panel, and
then to join each laptop to the domain by using the Netdom join command.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.
You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.
Solution: From the Computer Configuration node of GPO1, you configure the Account Policies settings. Does this meet
the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Account Lockout Policy settings encapsulates Password Policy, Account Lockout Policy, and Kerberos Policy. It will not
allow you to add a domain user to a local Administrators group. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/ptpt/library/cc757692(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The user account for a user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected]
Solution: From Active Directory Users and Computers, you set the E-mail property of User1 to [email protected]
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers
named DC1 and DC2.
DC1 holds the RID master operations role. DC1 fails and cannot be repaired. You need to move the RID role to DC2.
Solution: On DC2, you open the command prompt, run dsmgmt.exe, connect to DC2, and use the Seize RID master
opinion.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
A user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected]
You need a list of groups to which User1 is either a direct member or an indirect member.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Set -Aduser User1 -UserPricncipalName [email protected]
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your company has multiple branch offices.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
In one of the branch offices, a new technician is hired to add computers to the domain.
After successfully joining multiple computers to the domain, the technician fails to join any more computers to the
domain.
You need to ensure that the technician can join an unlimited number of computers to the domain.
What should you do?
A. Configure the technician\\’s user account as a manager service account.
B. Run the Set-ADComputer cmdlet.
C. Modify the Security settings of the Computers container.
D. Add the technician to the Domain Computers group.
Correct Answer: C
Users who have the Create Account Objects privilege for the Computers container can create an unlimited number of
computer accounts in the domain. You can grant this privilege by accessing the Advanced Security settings on the
Security Tab of the Computer container via Active Directory Users And Computers or the Active Directory Administrative
Center.
References: https://books.google.co.za/books?id=LvNODQAAQBAJandpg=PT268andlpg=PT268anddq=Modify+the+Security+settings+of+the+Computers+container+2016andsource=blandots=1lRBQ21cL0andsig=1AUSon_6cjIqyN_927iOB7z3Egandhl=enandsa=Xandved=0ahUKEwjBi4OSrnbAhXKD8AKHerKDcgQ6AEISjAC#v=onepageandq=Modify%20the%20Security%20settings%20of%20the%20Computers%20container%202016andf=false

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The user account for a user named User1 is in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to enable User1 to sign in as [email protected]
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run
Set-ADObject \\’CN=User1,OU=OU1,DC=Contoso,DC=com\\’
–Add @{UserPrincipalName=\\’[email protected]\\’}
–Remove @ {UserPrincipalName=\\’[email protected]\\’}.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains an enterprise root certification authority (CA) on a server that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to configure the CA to support Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) responders.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct selection presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Add a new certificate template to issue.
B. Modify the Authority Information Access (AIA) of the CA.
C. Configure an enrollment agent.
D. Install a standalone subordinate CA.
E. Modify the CRL distribution point (CDP) of the CA.
Correct Answer: AB
Once the OCSP service is configured, we need to configure the OCSP Response Signing template. This process
includes adding an Authority Information Access (AIA) extension and then issuing a new certificate template.
References: https://www.poweradmin.com/blog/deploying-active-directory-certificate-services-and-online-responder/

QUESTION 10
You create a user account that will be used as a template for new user accounts.
Which setting will be copied when you copy the user account from Active Directory Users and Computers?
A. the Department attribute
B. the Description attribute
C. Permission
D. Remote Desktop Services Profile
Correct Answer: A
A user template in Active Directory can be used if you are creating users for a specific department, with exactly the
same properties, and membership to the same user groups. A user template is nothing more than a disabled user
account that has all these settings already in place.
References: http://www.rebeladmin.com/2014/07/create-users-with-user-templates-in-ad/

QUESTION 11
Your company has a main office and three branch offices. The network contains an Active Directory domain named
contoso.com.
The main office contains three domain controllers. Each branch office contains one domain controller.
You discover the new settings in the Default Domain Policy are not applied in one of the branch offices, but all other
Group Policy objects (GPOs) are applied.
You need to check the replication of the Default Domain Policy for the branch office.
What should you do from a domain controller in the main office?
A. From Group Policy Management, click Default Domain Policy under Contoso.com, and then open the Scope tab.
B. From a command prompt, run dcdiag.exe.
C. From a command prompt, run repadmin.exe.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-GPOReport cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
Some user accounts in the domain have the P.O. Box attribute set.
You plan to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for all of the users by using Ldifde.
You have a user named User1 who is located in the Users container.
How should you configure the LDIF file to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for User1? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains the Active Directory forests and domains shown in the following table:

Pass4itsure 70-742 exam questions-q13

A two-way forest trust exists between ForestA and ForestB.
Each domain in ForestB contains user accounts that are used to manage servers.
You need to ensure that the user accounts used to manage the servers in ForestB are members of the Server
Operators in ForestA.
Solution: In each domain in ForestB, you create a global group that contains the user accounts of the respective
domain. You create a universal group in DomainBRoot. You add the new global groups to the new universal group. You
modify
the membership of the Server Operators in ForestA.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/access-control/active-directorysecurity-groups#bkmk-serveroperators

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Exam 300-365 : Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks

What is WIDEPLOY?Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) prepares you for the CCNP Wireless certification, a professional level certification specializing in the wireless field.

Exam policies and FAQ

Content:

  • Design and Deploy WLAN Infrastructure for Mobility 18% key
  • Implement QoS for Wireless Applications 13%
  • Implement Multicast over Wireless 13%
  • Implement High Density 13%
  • Implement Cisco MSE Architecture 12%
  • Design and Implement FlexConnect Architecture 12%
  • Implement Controller and AP High Availability 10%
  • Wireless Bridging (MESH) 10%

learn:

  • QoS Configuration Guide, Cisco IOS XE Release 3SE (Catalyst 3850 Switches) Configuring QoS
  • Cisco Unified Wireless QoS
  • Cisco Unified Wireless QoS and AVC
  • Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) v1.1CLN Store Content
  • IP Multicast Technology Overview
  • Cisco Unified Wireless Multicast Design
  • Multicast with Wireless LAN Controllers (WLCs) and Lightweight Access Points (LAPs) Configuration Example
  • Configuring the Service Discovery Gateway
  • Service Discovery Gateway
  • Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) v1.1CLN Store Content
  • Wireless LAN Design Guide for High Density Client Environments in Higher Education
  • High Density Experience (HDX) Deployment Guide, Release 8.0
  • Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) v1.1CLN Store Content
  • Enterprise Mobility 8.1 Design Guide
  • Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) v1.1CLN Store Content

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Must I attend?If you want to get Cisco certification, we recommend that you take this exam first.
What is the score to pass? 700/1000
What other exams are there after passing? 300-360 WIDESIGN
300-365 WIDEPLOY
300-370 WITSHOOT
300-375 WISECURE Exam.

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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of implementing wireless networks based on the applicable Cisco controller and Unified switching architectures that support high availability, QoS, multicast, and mobility services.

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QUESTION 1
You have set up FlexConnect APs. For which scenario is Fast Roaming supported, providing the WLAN is mapped to
the same VLAN and the client is roaming to an AP on the same Cisco WLC?
A. central switching with PMK (OKC) between different FlexConnect groups
B. local switching with Cisco Centralized Key Management within the same FlexConnect group
C. central switching with Cisco Centralized Key Management between different FlexConnect groups
D. local switching with PMKID within the same FlexConnect group
Correct Answer: B
 

QUESTION 2
An engineer has enabled Cisco Centralized Key Management on a WLAN with local and FlexConnect mode APs. The
engineer notices that Cisco CKM is not working for the FlexConnect APs when looking at roaming, but is working for
local mode APs. Which change is needed on the controller for Cisco CKM to work for the FlexConnect APs?
A. Place APs in FlexConnect group.
B. Enable FlexConnect Central Assoc.
C. Use local authentication.
D. Configure VLAN-based central switching.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-1/Enterprise-Mobility-8-1-DesignGuide/Enterprise_Mobility_8-1_Deployment_Guide/ch7_HREA.html

QUESTION 3
A customer requires that the remote site be able to utilize local servers when the AP is in WAN-down (standalone
mode). Which AP mode must be configured on the wireless controller?
A. SE-Connect
B. Monitor
C. Local
D. FlexConnect
E. Sniffer
F. Rogue Detector
Correct Answer: AD
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-2/configuration/guide/cg/cg_flexconnect.html

QUESTION 4
When CAPWAP protocol runs over IPv4, which UDP port numbers are used for control and data traffic, respectively?
A. control 5246, data ?UDP-Lite(IP Protocol 136)
B. control 5247, data ?5246
C. control 5246, data ?5247
D. control 5247, data ?UDP-Lite(IP Protocol 136)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You must ensure that new service advertisements are learned if the SP-DB is full. Which mDNS setting do you
configure?
A. MAC priority
B. mDNS gateway
C. service advertisement
D. LSS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association supported?
A. 2.4 GHz only
B. 2.4 or 5 GHz only
C. 2.4, 5, or 4.9 GHz
D. 5 GHz only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What are two functions of the RAP in a mesh network? (Choose two.)
A. It provides a wired connection for the wireless mesh APs.
B. It adds capacity and resilience to a mesh area.
C. It creates a centralized management location for the mesh network.
D. It reduces the hop count to the wireless network that is connected to the edge.
E. It routes traffic from the wireless mesh to the wired network.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
A customer has implemented a N+1 high availability plan in a multistory building. All APs on odd numbered floors are
set as primary to WLC-A and all APs on even numbered floors are set as primary to WLC-8. Which two problems are
likely to arise from this design? (Choose two)
A. inconsistent CleanAir data due to multiple WLCs
B. floor-to-floor bleed-through that causes intercontroller roaming delays
C. AVC inconsistency due to multiple mobility group members
D. legacy device compatibility with multiple WLC configuration that causes disconnects
E. unpredictable AP loading during a WLC failure
Correct Answer: AC
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/technology/wlc/82463-wlc-config-best-practice.html

QUESTION 9
Which standard specifies TSPEC to provide the management link between higher QoS protocols and the channel
access function?
A. 802.11e
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11ac
D. 802.11af
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer must deploy FlexConnect APs to a site that typically has 300 ms latency to the WLC. Which typical
operating mode must the engineer plan on for normal operations?
A. local authentication, local switching
B. central authentication, central switching
C. central authentication, local switching
D. connected mode
Correct Answer: A
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-2/configuration/guide/cg/cg_flexconnect.html

QUESTION 11
A FlexConnect remote office deployment is using five 2702i APs indoors and two 1532i APs outdoors. When a code
upgrade is performed and FlexConnect Smart AP Image Upgrade is leveraged, but no FlexConnect Master A has been
configured. How many image transfers between the WLC and APs will occur?
A. 7
B. 1
C. 5
D. 2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An engineer has all of the remote locations using a pair of FlexConnect WLCs with locally switched WLANs and must
leverage local certificate based authentication. Which component must be configured?
A. Configure the APs in FlexConnect Central Auth.
B. Manually install certificates on access points.
C. Upload the vendor certificate to the Cisco WLC.
D. Cisco WLC must be integrated with LDAP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two multicast issues can be resolved by using VideoStream? (Choose two.)
A. Wireless multicast packets that are lost are not resent
B. Video delivery is configured at the highest mandatory data rates
C. Each Wi-Fi client must acknowledge receiving a video IP multicast stream
D. The maximum number of video clients that can receive a multicast transmission simultaneously is reduced
E. Video IP multicast streams are policed to fit the bandwidth
Correct Answer: BE

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Save time!Know which topics, in what order. Let me tell you what to learn about the 70-761 exam.If you want to make your success definite in Microsoft you can use 70-761 dumps for preparation. Using the https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-761.html recommended study materials, you can easily get 70-761 querying data pass the 70-761 exam.

Exam 70-761 : Querying Data with Transact-SQL

What is T-SQL?T-SQL is a proprietary set of programming extensions from Microsoft and Sybase used to interact with relational databases.

The first exam in SQL Server 2016 is Microsoft Exam 70-761. This is the first exam related to Transact-SQL query data, Transact-SQL is the query language used in SQL Server.

Exam policies and FAQ

Content:

  • Manage data with Transact-SQL (40–45%) key
  • Query data with advanced Transact-SQL components (30–35%)
  • Program databases by using Transact-SQL (25–30%)

learn:

  • Manage data with Transact-SQL
  • Create Transact-SQL SELECT queries
  • Query multiple tables by using joins
  • Implement functions and aggregate data
  • Modify data
  • Query data with advanced Transact-SQL components
  • Query data by using subqueries and APPLY
  • Query data by using table expressions
  • Group and pivot data by using queries
  • Query temporal data and non-relational data
  • Program databases by using Transact-SQL
  • Create database programmability objects by using Transact-SQL
  • Implement error handling and transactions
  • Implement data types and NULLs

Certification:

MCSA

More about MCSA certification, maybe you are interested:

[2017 New Microsoft Version] Latest Upload Microsoft MCSA 70-734 Dumps Practice Test, Microsoft 70-734 Dumps Real Exam Video Questions And Answers OEM Preinstallation for Windows 10 (From Google Drive)

Do you have the following doubts about the 70-761 exam?

Is difficult?If you have experience with T-SQL, it should not be difficult.
Must I attend?If you want to get Microsoft certification, we recommend that you take this exam first.
What is the score to pass? 700/1000
What other exams are there after passing?70-762, 70-764, 70-765, 70-767,70-768 Exam.

Latest study material for exam 70-761 – Recommended

Recommended – experience

This exam is for SQL Server database administrators, system engineers and developers with two or more years of experience who want to validate their skills and knowledge to write queries.

Recommended – book

These books will help you pass the exam:

  1. Murach’s SQL Server 2012 for Developers (Training & Reference)
  2. Itzik Ben-Gan books
  3. Beginner SQL Programming Using Microsoft SQL Server 2016
  4. Learn SQL Server Intuitively: Transact-SQL: The Solid Basics
  5. Working with XML and SQL Server
  6. Exam Ref 70-761 Querying Data with Transact-SQL

Recommended – videos

Latest MCSA 70-761 dumps Practice test Questions and answers

Recommended – courses

20761: Querying Data with Transact-SQL (three days)

If you prefer a teacher instead of reading a book or watching a video, then it is a good choice to start with.

Recommended – questions and answers(from pass4itsure)

QUESTION 1

You develop and deploy a project management application. The application uses a Microsoft SQL Server database to

store data. You are developing a software bug tracking add-on for the application. The add-on must meet the following

requirements:

Allow case sensitive searches for product.

Filter search results based on exact text in the description.

Support multibyte Unicode characters.

You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q1

You need to ensure that users can perform searches of descriptions. Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q1-2

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/queries/contains-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a database named DB1 that contains two tables named Sales.Customers and Sales.Orders.
Sales.Customers has a foreign key relationship to a column named CustomerID in Sales.Orders.
You need to recommend a query that returns all the customers. The query must also return the number of orders that
each customer placed in 2016.
Solution: You recommend the following query:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q2

Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a database that contains tables named Customer_CRMSystem and Customer_HRSystem. Both tables use
the following structure:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q3

The tables include the data below: Customer_CRMSystem

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q3-2Customer_HRSystem

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q3-3

Records that contain null values for CustomerCode can be uniquely identified by CustomerName. You need to display
customers who appear in both tables and have a non-null CustomerCode. Which Transact-SQL statement should you
run?
Correct Answer: B
INTERSECT returns distinct rows that are output by both the left and right input queries operator. Incorrect Answers:
A: INNER JOIN returns records that have matching values in both tables but it returns duplicate records.
C: LEFT OUTER JOIN returns ALL records from the left table, and the matched records from the right table.
D: EXCEPT returns distinct rows from the left input query that are not output by the right input query.
E, F: UNION and UNION ALL combines the results of two or more queries into a single result set that includes all the
rows that belong to all queries in the union.
G: CROSS JOIN returns all possible combinations of data from both tables.
H: FULL OUTER JOIN returns all records when there is a match in either left or right table
Note: NULL values are treated as distinct values in join operations.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/performance/joins?view=sql-server-2017
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/language-elements/set-operators-except-and-intersect-transact-sql?view=sqlserver-2017 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/language-elements/set-operators-union-transactsql?view=sqlserver-2017 https://www.w3schools.com/sql/sql_join.asp

QUESTION 4
You have a database named DB1 that contains a temporal table named Sales.Customers.
You need to create a query that returns the credit limit that was available to each customer in DB1 at the beginning of
2017.
Which query should you execute?

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q4

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q4-2

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have two tables named UserLogin and Employee respectively.
You need to create a Transact-SQL script that meets the following requirements:
The script must update the value of the IsDeleted column for the UserLogin table to 1 if the value of the Id column for
the UserLogin table is equal to 1.
The script must update the value of the IsDeleted column of the Employee table to 1 if the value of the Id column is
equal to 1 for the Employee table when an update to the UserLogin table throws an error.
The error message “No tables updated!” must be produced when an update to the Employee table throws an error.
Which five Transact-SQL segments should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate TransactSQL segments from the list of Transact-SQL segments to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer :

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q5-2

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You have a database that contains the following tables: tblRoles, tblUsers, and tblUsersInRoles.
The table tblRoles is defined as follows.

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q6

You have a function named ufnGetRoleActiveUsers that was created by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q6-2

You need to list all roles and their corresponding active users. The query must return the RoleId, RoleName, and
UserName columns. If a role has no active users, a NULL value should be returned as the UserName for that role. How
should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL segments in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q6-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q6-4

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a database that contains several connected tables. The tables contain sales data for customers in the United
States only.
All the sales data is stored in a table named table1. You have a table named table2 that contains city names.
You need to create a query that lists only the cities that have no sales.
Which statement clause should you add to the query?
A. GROUP BY
B. MERGE
C. GROUP BY ROLLUP
D. LEFT JOIN
E. GROUP BY CUBE
F. CROSS JOIN
G. PIVOT
H. UNPIVOT
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/queries/from-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017
 

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You need to develop a Transact-SQL statement that meets the following requirements:
The statement must return a custom error when there are problems updating a table.
The error number must be value50555.
The error severity level must be14.
A Microsoft SQL Server alert must be triggered when the error condition occurs.
Which Transact-SQL segment should you use for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL
segments in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q8-2

Box 1: TRY…CATCH
The TRY…CATCH Transact-SQL construct implements error handling for Transact-SQL that is similar to the exception
handling in the Microsoft Visual C# and Microsoft Visual C++ languages. A group of Transact-SQL statements can be
enclosed in a TRY block. If an error occurs in the TRY block, control is passed to another group of statements that is
enclosed in a CATCH block.
Box 2: RAISERROR(50555, 14, 1 \\’The update failed.”) WITH LOG
We must use RAISERROR to be able to specify the required severity level of 14, and we should also use the LOG
option, which Logs the error in the error log and the application log for the instance of the Microsoft SQL Server
Database
Engine, as this enable a MS MS SQL SERVER alert to be triggered.
Note: RAISERROR generates an error message and initiates error processing for the session. RAISERROR can either
reference a user-defined message stored in the sys.messages catalog view or build a message dynamically. The
message is returned as a server error message to the calling application or to an associated CATCH block of a
TRY…CATCH construct.
Incorrect Answers:
Not THROW: THROW does not have a severity parameter.
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175976.aspx
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms178592.aspx

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You have a database that contains the following tables: tblEmployees and tblSalesSummary. Each record contains
approximately one million records.
You use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) to run two queries. The Include Actual Execution Plan
option is enabled.
Both queries return the same results. SSMS generates the execution plans shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
You need to troubleshoot the queries.
How should you interpret the execution plans? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q9

Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q9-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q9-3
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/showplan-logical-and-physical-operatorsreference?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You create a table named Customer by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q10

You must insert the following data into the Customer table:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q10-2

You need to ensure that both records are inserted or neither record is inserted. Solution: You run the following TransactSQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q10-3

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/it-it/sql/t-sql/statements/insert-transact-sql?view=sql-server-2017

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a database that tracks orders and deliveries for customers in North America. The database contains the
following tables:
Sales.Customers

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q11

Application.Cities

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q11-2

Sales.CustomerCategories

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q11-3

The company\\’s development team is designing a customer directory application. The application must list customers
by the area code of their phone number. The area code is defined as the first three characters of the phone number.
The main page of the application will be based on an indexed view that contains the area and phone number for all
customers.
You need to return the area code from the PhoneNumber field.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q11-4

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
We need SELECT TOP 1 @areacode =.. to ensure that only one value is returned.

QUESTION 12
You are building a stored procedure that will update data in a table named Table1 by using a complex query as the data
source.
You need to ensure that the SELECT statement in the stored procedure meets the following requirements:
Data being processed must be usable in several statements in the stored procedure.
Data being processed must contain statistics.
What should you do?
A. Update Table1 by using a common table expression (CTE).
B. Insert the data into a temporary table, and then update Table1 from the temporary table.
C. Place the SELECT statement in a derived table, and then update Table1 by using a JOIN to the derived table.
D. Insert the data into a table variable, and then update Table1 from the table variable.
Correct Answer: B
Temp Tables… Are real materialized tables that exist in tempdb Have dedicated stats generated by the engine Can be
indexed Can have constraints Persist for the life of the current CONNECTION Can be referenced by other queries or
subproce Incorrect Answers:
A: CTEs do not have dedicated stats. They rely on stats on the underlying objects
C: Unlike a derived table, a CTE can be self-referencing and can be referenced multiple times in the same query.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190766(v=sql.105).aspx
https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/13112/whats-the-difference-between-a-cte-and-a-temp-table

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You develop and deploy a project management application. The application uses a Microsoft SQL Server database to
store data. You are developing a software bug tracking add-on for the application.
The add-on must meet the following requirements:
Allow case sensitive searches for product.
Filter search results based on exact text in the description.
Support multibyte Unicode characters.

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q13

You run the following Transact-SQL statement:
Users report that searches for the product Salt also return results for the product salt.
You need to ensure that the query returns the correct results.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL segments in
the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 70-761 exam questions-q13-3

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Microsoft exam certification information

300-210 SITCS – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/sitcs.html

Microsoft CCNP Security 300-210 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the Cisco ASA CX role in inspecting SSL traffic is true?
A. To decrypt traffic, the Cisco ASA CX must accept the websites\\’ certificates as Trusted Root Cas.
B. If the administrator elects to decrypt traffic, the Cisco ASA CX acts as a man-in–me- middle.
C. Either all traffic is decrypted, or no traffic is decrypted by the Cisco ASA CX.
D. The traffic is encrypted, so the Cisco ASA CX cannot determine the content of the traffic.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
What type of interface is required to pass VLAN tagged traffic from one network to another on a Firepower 7125?
A. logical switched
B. logical routed
C. physical switched
D. hybrid
E. physical routed
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure for an IPS deployment, where
traffic passes through the appliance but does not require VLAN rewriting?
A. inline set
B. passive
C. inline tap
D. routed
E. transparent
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
Which two conditions must you configure in an event action rule to match all IPv4 addresses in the victim range and
filter on the complete subsignature range? (Choose two.)
A. Disable event action override.
B. Leave the victim address range unspecified.
C. Set the subsignature ID-range to the default.
D. Set the deny action percentage to 100.
E. Set the deny action percentage to 0.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about Cisco Cloud Web Security functionality are true? (Choose two.)
A. It integrates with Cisco Integrated Service Routers.
B. It supports threat avoidance and threat remediation.
C. It extends web security to the desktop, laptop, and PDA.
D. It integrates with Cisco ASA Firewalls.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6pass4itsure 300-210 exam question q6 pass4itsure 300-210 exam question q6-1

To what extent will the Cisco IPS sensor contribute data to the Cisco SensorBase network?
A. It will not contribute to the SensorBase network.
B. It will contribute to the SensorBase network, but will withhold some sensitive information
C. It will contribute the victim IP address and port to the SensorBase network.
D. It will not contribute to Risk Rating adjustments that use information from the SensorBase network.
Correct Answer: B
To configure network participation, follow these steps:
Step 1: Log in to IDM using an account with administrator privileges. Step 2: Choose Configuration > Policies > Global
Correlation > Network Participation. Step 3: To turn on network participation, click the Partial or Full radio button:
?artial–Data is contributed to the SensorBase Network, but data considered potentially sensitive is filtered out and never
sent.
?ull–All data is contributed to the SensorBase Network
In this case, we can see that this has been turned off as shown below:

pass4itsure 300-210 exam question q6-2

 

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco deployment architectures support Clustering? (Choose 2).
A. Cisco FirePOWER Management Center
B. Cisco ASAv
C. Cisco FirePOWER Appliances (NGIPS)
D. Cisco ASA with FirePOWER Services
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 8
Which two pieces of information are required to implement transparent user identification using context Directory Agent?
(Choose two.)
A. the shared secret
B. the server name where Context Directory Agent is installed
C. the server name of the global catalog domaint controller
D. the syslog server IP address
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 9
What are two features of the Cisco ASA NGFW? (Choose two.)
A. It can restrict access based on qualitative analysis.
B. It can restrict access based on reputation.
C. It can reactively protect against Internet threats.
D. It can proactively protect against Internet threats.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 10
Which interface type allows packets to be dropped?
A. passive
B. inline
C. TAP
D. either passive or inline, provided that the intrusion policy has the Drop When Inline check box selected.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Which option describes device trajectory on Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints?
A. It shows the file path on a host.
B. It shows a full packet capture of the file.
C. It shows which devices on the network received the file.
D. It shows what a file did on a host.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Which statement about the default configuration of an IPS sensor\\’s management security settings is true?
A. There is no login banner
B. The web server port is TCP 80
C. Telnet and SSH are enable
D. User accounts lock after three attempts
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ESA component receives connections from external mail servers?
A. MTA
B. public listener
C. private listener
D. recipient access table
E. SMTP incoming relay agent
Correct Answer: B

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam DP-200: Implementing an Azure Data Solution (beta) – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-dp-200.aspx Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure data engineers who collaborate with business stakeholders to identify and meet the data requirements to implement data solutions that use Azure data services.

Azure data engineers are responsible for data-related tasks that include provisioning data storage services, ingesting streaming and batch data, transforming data, implementing security requirements, implementing data retention policies, identifying performance bottlenecks, and accessing external data sources.

Related exams: Microsoft other Certification DP-200

Implement data storage solutions (40-45%)

  • Implement non-relational data stores
  • Implement relational data stores
  • Manage data security

Manage and develop data processing (25-30%)

  • Develop batch processing solutions
  • Develop streaming solutions

Monitor and optimize data solutions (30-35%)

  • Monitor data storage
  • Monitor data processing
  • Optimize Azure data solutions

Latest Microsoft other Certification DP-200 Exam Practice Test Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

You manage the Microsoft Azure Databricks environment for a company. You must be able to access a private Azure

Blob Storage account. Data must be available to all Azure Databricks workspaces. You need to provide data

access. 

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions

to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. 

Select and Place:pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q1-1

Step 1: Create a secret scope
Step 2: Add secrets to the scope
Note: dbutils.secrets.get(scope = “”, key = “”) gets the key that has been stored as a secret in a secret scope.
Step 3: Mount the Azure Blob Storage container
You can mount a Blob Storage container or a folder inside a container through Databricks File System – DBFS. The
mount is a pointer to a Blob Storage container, so the data is never synced locally.
Note: To mount a Blob Storage container or a folder inside a container, use the following command:
Python
dbutils.fs.mount(
source = “wasbs://@.blob.core.windows.net”,
mount_point = “/mnt/”,
extra_configs = {“”:dbutils.secrets.get(scope = “”, key = “”)})
where:
dbutils.secrets.get(scope = “”, key = “”) gets the key that has been stored as a secret in a secret scope.
References:
https://docs.databricks.com/spark/latest/data-sources/azure/azure-storage.html

 

QUESTION 2
You develop data engineering solutions for a company. The company has on-premises Microsoft SQL Server databases
at multiple locations.
The company must integrate data with Microsoft Power BI and Microsoft Azure Logic Apps. The solution must avoid
single points of failure during connection and transfer to the cloud. The solution must also minimize latency.
You need to secure the transfer of data between on-premises databases and Microsoft Azure.
What should you do?
A. Install a standalone on-premises Azure data gateway at each location
B. Install an on-premises data gateway in personal mode at each location
C. Install an Azure on-premises data gateway at the primary location
D. Install an Azure on-premises data gateway as a cluster at each location
Correct Answer: D
You can create high availability clusters of On-premises data gateway installations, to ensure your organization can
access on-premises data resources used in Power BI reports and dashboards. Such clusters allow gateway
administrators to group gateways to avoid single points of failure in accessing on-premises data resources. The Power
BI service always uses the primary gateway in the cluster, unless it\\’s not available. In that case, the service switches to
the next gateway in the cluster, and so on.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-gateway-high-availability-clusters


QUESTION 3
You manage a solution that uses Azure HDInsight clusters.
You need to implement a solution to monitor cluster performance and status.
Which technology should you use?
A. Azure HDInsight .NET SDK
B. Azure HDInsight REST API
C. Ambari REST API
D. Azure Log Analytics
E. Ambari Web UI
Correct Answer: E
Ambari is the recommended tool for monitoring utilization across the whole cluster. The Ambari dashboard shows easily
glanceable widgets that display metrics such as CPU, network, YARN memory, and HDFS disk usage. The specific
metrics shown depend on the cluster type. The “Hosts” tab shows metrics for individual nodes so you can ensure the load
on your cluster is evenly distributed.
The Apache Ambari project is aimed at making Hadoop management simpler by developing software for provisioning,
managing, and monitoring Apache Hadoop clusters. Ambari provides an intuitive, easy-to-use Hadoop management
web UI backed by its RESTful APIs.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/monitoring-on-hdinsight-part-1-an-overview/
https://ambari.apache.org/

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to create a new single database instance of Microsoft Azure SQL Database.
The database must only allow communication from the data engineer\\’s workstation. You must connect directly to the
instance by using Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio.
You need to create and configure the Database. Which three Azure PowerShell cmdlets should you use to develop the
solution? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the
correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q4-1

Step 1: New-AzureSqlServer
Create a server.
Step 2: New-AzureRmSqlServerFirewallRule
New-AzureRmSqlServerFirewallRule creates a firewall rule for a SQL Database server.
Can be used to create a server firewall rule that allows access from the specified IP range.
Step 3: New-AzureRmSqlDatabase
Example: Create a database on a specified server
PS C:\>New-AzureRmSqlDatabase -ResourceGroupName “ResourceGroup01” -ServerName “Server01”
-DatabaseName “Database01
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/scripts/sql-database-create-and-configure-database-powershell?toc=%2fpowershell%2fmodule%2ftoc.json

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You develop a data ingestion process that will import data to a Microsoft Azure SQL Data Warehouse. The data to be
ingested resides in parquet files stored in an Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account.
You need to load the data from the Azure Data Lake Gen 2 storage account into the Azure SQL Data Warehouse.
Solution:
1.
Use Azure Data Factory to convert the parquet files to CSV files
2.
Create an external data source pointing to the Azure storage account
3.
Create an external file format an external table using the external data source
4.
Load the data using the INSERT…SELECT statement Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
There is no need to convert the parquet files to CSV files.
You load the data using the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-load-from-azure-data-lake-store

 

QUESTION 6
A company builds an application to allow developers to share and compare code. The conversations, code snippets,
and links shared by people in the application are stored in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database instance. The application
allows for searches of historical conversations and code snippets.
When users share code snippets, the code snippet is compared against previously sharing code snippets by using a
combination of Transact-SQL functions including SUBSTRING, FIRST_VALUE, and SQRT. If a match is found, a link to
the match is added to the conversation.
Customers report the following issues: Delays occur during live conversations A delay occurs before matching links
appear after code snippets are added to conversations
You need to resolve the performance issues.
Which technologies should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct issues. Each
technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q6-1

Box 1: memory-optimized table
In-Memory OLTP can provide great performance benefits for transaction processing, data ingestion, and transient data
scenarios.
Box 2: materialized view
To support efficient querying, a common solution is to generate, in advance, a view that materializes the data in a format
suited to the required results set. The Materialized View pattern describes generating prepopulated views of data in environments where the source data isn\\’t in a suitable format for querying, where generating a suitable query is
difficult, or where query performance is poor due to the nature of the data or the data store.
These materialized views, which only contain data required by a query, allow applications to quickly obtain the
information they need. In addition to joining tables or combining data entities, materialized views can include the current
values of
calculated columns or data items, the results of combining values or executing transformations on the data items, and
values specified as part of the query. A materialized view can even be optimized for just a single query.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/patterns/materialized-view

 

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You develop data engineering solutions for a company.
A project requires the deployment of resources to Microsoft Azure for batch data processing on Azure HDInsight. Batch
processing will run daily and must:
Scale to minimize costs
Be monitored for cluster performance
You need to recommend a tool that will monitor clusters and provide information to suggest how to scale.
Solution: Monitor clusters by using Azure Log Analytics and HDInsight cluster management solutions.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
HDInsight provides cluster-specific management solutions that you can add for Azure Monitor logs. Management
solutions add functionality to Azure Monitor logs, providing additional data and analysis tools. These solutions collect
important performance metrics from your HDInsight clusters and provide the tools to search the metrics. These solutions
also provide visualizations and dashboards for most cluster types supported in HDInsight. By using the metrics that you
collect with the solution, you can create custom monitoring rules and alerts.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/hdinsight-hadoop-oms-log-analytics-tutorial


QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You need to configure data encryption for external applications.
Solution:
1.
Access the Always Encrypted Wizard in SQL Server Management Studio
2.
Select the column to be encrypted
3.
Set the encryption type to Randomized
4.
Configure the master key to use the Windows Certificate Store
5.
Validate configuration results and deploy the solution
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use the Azure Key Vault, not the Windows Certificate Store, to store the master key.
Note: The Master Key Configuration page is where you set up your CMK (Column Master Key) and select the key store
provider where the CMK will be stored. Currently, you can store a CMK in the Windows certificate store, Azure Key
Vault, or a hardware security module (HSM).pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q8

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-always-encrypted-azure-key-vault

 

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You need to implement diagnostic logging for Data Warehouse monitoring.
Which log should you use?
A. RequestSteps
B. DmsWorkers
C. SQL requests 
D. ExecRequests
Correct Answer: C
Scenario:
The Azure SQL Data Warehouse cache must be monitored when the database is being used.pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q9

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/system-dynamic-management-views/sys-dm-pdw-sql-requests-transact-sq

 

QUESTION 10
A company runs Microsoft Dynamics CRM with Microsoft SQL Server on-premises. SQL Server Integration Services
(SSIS) packages extract data from Dynamics CRM APIs and load the data into a SQL Server data warehouse.
The data center is running out of capacity. Because of the network configuration, you must extract on-premises data to
the cloud over https. You cannot open any additional ports. The solution must implement the least amount of effort.
You need to create a pipeline system.
Which component should you use? To answer, select the appropriate technology in the dialog box in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q10-1

Box 1: Source
For Copy activity, it requires the source and sinks linked services to define the direction of data flow.
Copying between a cloud data source and a data source in private network: if either source or sink linked service points
to a self-hosted IR, the copy activity is executed on that self-hosted Integration Runtime.
Box 2: Self-hosted integration runtime
A self-hosted integration runtime can run copy activities between a cloud data store and a data store in a private
network and it can dispatch transform activities against compute resources in an on-premises network or an Azure
virtual
network. The installation of a self-hosted integration runtime needs on an on-premises machine or a virtual machine
(VM) inside a private network.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/create-self-hosted-integration-runtime

 

QUESTION 11
You need to set up Azure Data Factory pipelines to meet data movement requirements. Which integration runtime
should you use?
A. self-hosted integration runtime
B. Azure-SSIS Integration Runtime
C. .NET Common Language Runtime (CLR)
D. Azure integration runtime
Correct Answer: A
The following table describes the capabilities and network support for each of the integration runtime types:pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q11

Scenario: The solution must support migrating databases that support external and internal application to Azure SQL
Database. The migrated databases will be supported by Azure Data Factory pipelines for the continued movement,
migration and updating of data both in the cloud and from local core business systems and repositories.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/concepts-integration-runtime

 

QUESTION 12
You need to set up access to Azure SQL Database for Tier 7 and Tier 8 partners.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of
actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q12-1

Tier 7 and 8 data access is constrained to single endpoints managed by partners for access
Step 1: Set the Allow Azure Services to Access Server setting to Disabled
Set Allow access to Azure services to OFF for the most secure configuration.
By default, access through the SQL Database firewall is enabled for all Azure services, under Allow access to Azure
services. Choose OFF to disable access for all Azure services.
Note: The firewall pane has an ON/OFF button that is labeled Allow access to Azure services. The ON setting allows
communications from all Azure IP addresses and all Azure subnets. These Azure IPs or subnets might not be owned
by
you. This ON setting is probably more open than you want your SQL Database to be. The virtual network rule feature
offers much finer granular control.
Step 2: In the Azure portal, create a server firewall rule
Set up SQL Database server firewall rules
Server-level IP firewall rules apply to all databases within the same SQL Database server.
To set up a server-level firewall rule:
In Azure portal, select SQL databases from the left-hand menu, and select your database on the SQL databases page.
On the Overview page, select Set server firewall. The Firewall settings page for the database server opens.
Step 3: Connect to the database and use Transact-SQL to create a database firewall rule
Database-level firewall rules can only be configured using Transact-SQL (T-SQL) statements, and only after you\\’ve
configured a server-level firewall rule.
To set up a database-level firewall rule:
Connect to the database, for example using SQL Server Management Studio.
In Object Explorer, right-click the database and select New Query.
In the query window, add this statement and modify the IP address to your public IP address:
EXECUTE sp_set_database_firewall_rule N\\’Example DB Rule\\’,\\’0.0.0.4\\’,\\’0.0.0.4\\’;
On the toolbar, select Execute to create the firewall rule.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-security-tutorial

 

QUESTION 13
You need to process and query ingested Tier 9 data.
Which two options should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Notification Hub
B. Transact-SQL statements
C. Azure Cache for Redis
D. Apache Kafka statements
E. Azure Event Grid
F. Azure Stream Analytics
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation:
Event Hubs provides a Kafka endpoint that can be used by your existing Kafka based applications as an alternative to
running your own Kafka cluster.
You can stream data into Kafka-enabled Event Hubs and process it with Azure Stream Analytics, in the following steps:
Create a Kafka enabled Event Hubs namespace.
Create a Kafka client that sends messages to the event hub.
Create a Stream Analytics job that copies data from the event hub into Azure blob storage.
Scenario:pass4itsure DP-200 exam question q13

Tier 9 reporting must be moved to Event Hubs, queried, and persisted in the same Azure region as the company’s main
office
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-kafka-stream-analytics

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Free 50 Cisco CCDP 300-320 Practice test questions and answers

QUESTION 1
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two types of authentication mechanisms can be used by VRRP for security? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-1
B. MD5
C. SHA-256
D. plaintext authentication
E. PEAP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
NAC: Simple access control at user and device contextual level. Which features are needed ? (Choose Two)
A. secure access control
B. TrustSec
C. ISE
D. NAC agent
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which OSPF concept is used to relate areas to the backbone area through another area?
A. Virtual Links
B. Backup Links
C. Inter-backbone Links
D. Point-to-point Links
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What protocol is used for connectivity between VSS layers?
A. PAgP
B. IVR
C. ISL
D. VSL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which technology should a network designer combine with VSS to ensure a loop free topology with optimal convergence time?
A. Portfast
B. UplinkFast
C. RPVST +
D. Multichassis EtherChannel
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
ACME corporation owns a single MDS. Which two SAN tools can be used to optimize the use and cost of the switching hardware? (Choose two.)
A. zoning
B. IVR
C. VSAN
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
If your enterprise is connected to 2 ISP, which method could you use to prevent being used as a transit network? (Choose Two)
A. filter outbound
B. filter inbound
C. throw both ISP
D. choose only one ISP
E. Allow every routes inbound
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which two options improve BGP scalability in a large autonomous system? (Choose two.)
A. route reflectors
B. route redistribution
C. confederations
D. communities
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What is one limitation of MPLS Layer 3 VPN networks?
A. They require less powerful routers with limited capabilities
B. They require the customer to control routing
C. They support only IP traffic
D. PE routers are underutilized
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which ASA to action with Web traffic to treat both HTTP and HTTPS for local internet proxy?
A. Redirect traffic HTTP & HTTPS to WSA using wccp
B. Send traffic for inspection to CWS
C. Send traffic to a different port for http & https monitoring to WSA using L2TP.
D. Use IPS module in ASA for inspection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An engineer is designing a new data center network so that the topology maintains fewer uplinks to the aggregation layer to reduce STP processing requirements.
What data center topology meets the RFP requirements?
A. mesh
B. top of rack
C. star
D. end of row
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
On which two types of links should routing protocol peerings be established according to best practice? (Choose two.)
A. distribution links
B. end user links
C. transit links
D. core links
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
Company has asked for an OOB management network design. Which option is one Cisco best practice parameter that must be followed?
A. Data networks must be limited to SSH, NTP, FTP, SNMP and TaCACS+ protocols
B. Data networks must never traverse the management network
C. Data networks and management networks must be in the routing table
D. Data networks must traverse the management network as a backup path
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A company have single ASA hardware box and they need to separate company departments in way that they can apply different rules on them, ACL, NAT, and so
on…
Which mode is needed?
A. routed mode
B. transparent mode
C. multiple context mode
D. active failover mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
When designing data centers for multitenancy, which two benefits are provided by the implementation of VSAN and zoning? (Choose two)
A. VSAN provides a means of restricting visibility and connectivity among devices connected to a zone
B. VSANs have their own set of services and address space, which prevents an issue in one VSAN from affecting others
C. Zones provide the ability to create many logical SAN fabrics on a single Cisco MDS 9100 family switch
D. VSANs and zones use separate fabrics
E. Zones allow an administrator to control which initiators can see which targets
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 17
Which two methods are available to connect a Cisco IOS device to an active directory domain for authentication? (Choose two)A. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
B. Radius
C. TACACS+
D. AAA
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
To which network layer should Cisco Express Forwarding be tuned to support load balancing and to make more informed forwarding decisions?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 5
F. Layer 6
G. Layer 7
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
An engineer is designing a Multichassis Etherchannel using VSS. Which network topology is the result?
A. Looped
B. Ring
C. Hybrid
D. Star
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A company wants to configure BGP on a router so that other BGP neighbors cannot influence the path of a particular route .which action must be taken to accomplish this configuration ?
A. Configure a low router ID for the route
B. Configure a high local preference for the route
C. Configure a high weight for the route
D. Configure a low MED for the route
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
A Layer 2 switch in the network has recently started broadcasting traffic out of every port and is impacting network performance. The engineering department
determines that a MAC overflow attack is the cause. Which two features can protect and mitigate the damage of the attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Storm Control
B. Port Security
C. SPAN
D. BPDU Filters
E. IP Source Guard
F. VACLs
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
Which two features can you implement to control which networks are advertised by a BGP router? (Choose two.)
A. prefix lists
B. route maps
C. policy maps
D. router SNMP statements
E. crypto maps
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
What location are security policies enforced in ACI?
A. leaf
B. spine
C. core
D. distribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
One-to-one ratio mapping for access switches close to servers.
A. ToR
B. EoR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
How does stub routing affect transit routes in EIGRP?
A. Transit routes are passed from a stub network to a hub network.
B. It is designed to prevent the distribution of external routes.
C. It prevents the hub router from advertising networks learned from the spokes.
D. Transit routes are filtered from stub networks to the network hub.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
A customer would like to implement a firewall to secure an enterprise network. However, the customer is unable to allocate any new subnets. What type of firewall
mode must be implemented?
A. routed
B. active/standby
C. transparent
D. virtual
E. active/active
F. zone based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
A network engineer must use an Internet connection to provide backup connectivity between two sites. The backup connection must be encrypted and support
multicast.
Which technology must be used?
A. GRE over IPsec
B. GETVPN
C. IPsec direct encapsulation
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28pass4itsure 300-209 exam questionRefer to the exhibit. A customer wants to use HSRP as a First Hop Redundancy Protocol. Both routers are currently running and all interfaces are active. Which
factor determines which router becomes the active HSRP device?
A. the router with the highest MAC address for the respective group
B. the router with the highest IP address for the respective group
C. the router that boots up last
D. the router with the highest interface bandwidth for the respective group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
At which layer in the ACI fabric are policies enforced?
A. leaf
B. spine
C. APIC
D. endpoint
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
An OSPF router should have a maximum of how many adjacent neighbors?
A. 100
B. 80
C. 60
D. 50Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31pass4itsure 300-209 exam question

Refer to the exhibit. A customer discovers router R1 remains active even when R1 uplink (F0/1) is down. Which two commands can be applied to R1 to allow R2
to take over as the HSRP active? (Choose two.)
A. Standby 10 track 50
B. Standby 10 track 50 decrement 20
C. Track 50 ip route 10.10.10.0/24 reachability
D. Standby 10 track 50 shutdown
E. Track 50 interface Fa0/1 ip routing
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 32
The network engineering team for a large university must increase the security within the core of the network by ensuring that IP traffic only originates from a
network segment that is assigned to that interface in the routing table. Which technology must be chosen to accomplish this requirement?
A. VLAN access control lists
B. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
C. Intrusion prevention system
D. ARP inspection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
An engineer is working for a large scale cable TV provider that requires multicast on multisourced streaming video, but must not use any rendezvous point
mechanism. Which multicast protocol must be configured?
A. SSM
B. ASM
C. PIM-SM
D. BIDIR-PIM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
An engineer is considering uplink bandwidth over-subscription in a Layer 3 network design. Which option is the Cisco recommended over-subscription ratio for
uplinks between the distribution and core layers?
A. 3 to 1
B. 4 to 1
C. 6 to 1
D. 8 to 1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35pass4itsure 300-209 exam question

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must provide a redesign for the distribution and access layers of the network. Which correction allows for a more efficient design?
A. Change the link between Distribution Switch A and Distribution Switch B to be a routed link.
B. Reconfigure the Distribution Switch A to become the HSRP Active.
C. Create an EtherChannel link between Distribution Switch A and Distribution Switch B.
D. Add a link between Access Switch A and Access Switch B.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
A network consultant is designing an Internet Edge solution and is providing the details around the flows supporting a local Internet Proxy. How is on-premises
web filtering supported?
A. A cisco ASA uses an IPS module to inspect HTTP and HTTPS traffic.
B. A Cisco ASA redirects HTTP and HTTPS traffic to the WSA using WCCP.
C. A Cisco ASA connects to the web security appliance via TLS to monitor HTTP and HTTPS traffic.
D. A Cisco ASA redirects HTTP and HTTPS traffic to CWS with a Web Security Connector.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
A network engineer must reduce the security risks on a BGP network. Which option helps to avoid rogue route injection, unwanted peering, and malicious BGP
activities?
A. Apply route maps and policies in route redistribution events.
B. Apply MD5 authentication between all BGP peers.
C. Encrypt all traffic with IPsec between neighbors.
D. Use GRE tunnels between all BGP peers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
A network consultant is designing an enterprise network that includes an IPsec headend termination device. Which two capabilities are the most important to
consider when assessing the headend device’s scalability? (Choose two.)
A. bandwidth capabilities
B. packets per second processing capability
C. CPU capabilities
D. number of tunnels that can be aggregated
E. memory capabilities
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 39
When a site has Internet connectivity with two different ISP’s, which two strategies are recommended to avoid becoming a BGP transit site? (Choose two.)
A. accept all inbound routes from ISPs
B. advertise all routes to both ISPs.
C. filter routes inbound from the ISPs.
D. filter routes outbound to the ISPs.
E. use a single service provider.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 40
An engineer is designing a Layer 3-enabled access layer. Which design recommendation must the engineer consider when deploying EIGRP routing within the
access layer?
A. Use the First Hop Redundancy Protocol on access layer switches.
B. Implement floating static routes on access switches for redundant links.
C. Enable multiple uplinks from each access switch stack to the distribution switches.
D. Configure all edge access layer switches to use a stub routing feature.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 41
The Cisco ACI fabric consists of which design at the physical layer?
A. three-tier core, aggregation, and access
B. collapsed core network
C. full mesh
D. spine-and-leaf
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 42
What is the result of a successful RFP check?
A. The packet is dropped because it arrived on the interface used to route traffic back to the source address.
B. The packet is forwarded because it arrived on the interface used to route traffic back to the source address.
C. The packet is forwarded because it arrived on the interface used to route traffic to the destination address.
D. The packet is dropped because it arrived on the interface used to route traffic to the destination address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
When you configure a multichassis setup with VSS, which link must be configured to extend the backplane between the two switches?
A. VSL
B. LCAP
C. PaGP
D. ISL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 44
An engineer is designing a network using RSTP. Several devices on the network support only legacy STP. Which outcome occurs?
A. RSTP and STP choose the protocol with the best performance.
B. RSTP and STP interoperate and fast convergence is achieved.
C. RSTP and STP are not compatible and legacy ports error disable.
D. RSTP and STP interoperate, but the fast convergence is not used.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Which security function is inherent in an Application Centric Infrastructure network?
A. Intrusion Prevention
B. Intrusion Detection
C. Default Denial Network
D. Default Inter-EPG connectivity
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 46
How does stub routing affect transit routes in EIGRP?
A. Transit routes are passed from a stub network to a hub network.
B. It is designed to prevent the distribution of external routes.
C. It prevents the hub router from advertising networks learned from the spokes.
D. Transit routes are filtered from stub networks to the network hub.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 47
A customer would like to implement a firewall to secure an enterprise network. However, the customer is unable to allocate any new subnets. What type of firewall
mode must be implemented?
A. routed
B. active/standby
C. transparent
D. virtual
E. active/active
F. zone based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
A network engineer must use an Internet connection to provide backup connectivity between two sites. The backup connection must be encrypted and support
multicast.
Which technology must be used?
A. GRE over IPsec
B. GETVPN
C. IPsec direct encapsulation
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49pass4itsure 300-209 exam questionRefer to the exhibit. A customer wants to use HSRP as a First Hop Redundancy Protocol. Both routers are currently running and all interfaces are active. Which
factor determines which router becomes the active HSRP device?
A. the router with the highest MAC address for the respective group
B. the router with the highest IP address for the respective group
C. the router that boots up last
D. the router with the highest interface bandwidth for the respective group
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
At which layer in the ACI fabric are policies enforced?
A. leaf
B. spine
C. APIC
D. endpoint
Correct Answer: C

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Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for IT professionals who deploy, manage, and maintain PCs, devices, and applications across midsized to
large enterprise organizations. Typically, this audience comes from a desktop support background. A significant portion of
this audience uses or intends to use System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager to manage and deploy Windows devices and applications.

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QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy a Windows 8.1 Enterprise image that contains a volume license version of Microsoft Office 2013. The image will be captured from a reference computer. Office is activated by using the Key Management Service (KMS).
On the reference computer, you install Office 2013 and you verify that all of the Office applications start properly.
You need to ensure that when the image is deployed, users are not prompted for activation when they first start an Office application.
What is the best action to perform before you capture the image? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Rearm Office 2013 on the reference computer.
B. Run setup.exe and specify the /modify switch.
C. Modify the Config.xml file.
D. Reinstall Office 2013 on the reference computer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your company deploys Microsoft Office Professional 2013 and installs all of the Office 2013 Professional applications to 100 computers.
You need to automate the removal of Access 2013 from some of the computers.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Modify the Config.xml file, and then run msiexec.exe.
B. Create an MSP file, and then run setup.exe.
C. Modify the Config.xml file, and then run setup.exe.
D. Create an MSP file, and then run msiexec.exe
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You use the Key Management Service (KMS) to activate Microsoft Office 2013.
You need to trigger the activation of Office 2013 on a client computer. Which tool should you use?
A. Ospp.vbs
B. Onlinesetup.cmd
C. Slui.exe
D. Wuauclt.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You plan to sequence a 32-bit application named App1. App1 is compatible with Windows 7 and Windows 8.1. You have the following operating systems deployed to the network:
64-bit version of Windows 8.1 Enterprise
64-bit version of Windows 8.1 Pro
32-bit version of Windows 8.1 Pro
64-bit version of Windows 7 Enterprise
32-bit version of Windows 7 Pro
64-bit version of Windows 7 Pro
You need to identify the minimum number of Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) packages that must be created to ensure that App1 can run on all of the client computers on the network.
How many App-V packages should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains computers that have Microsoft Office 2007 and Office 2010 installed.
You plan to upgrade all of the versions of Office to Office 365 ProPlus.
You need to recommend a solution to identify which Office add-ins are in use.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Install the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to-Run on all of the computers. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) on one of the computers.
B. Install the Telemetry Processor on all of the computers. Install the Telemetry Agent on one of the computers.
C. Install the Telemetry Agent on all of the computers. Install the Telemetry Processor on one of the computers.
D. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) on all of the computers. Install the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to -Run on one of the computers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
You plan to deploy a Click-to-Run installation of Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus.
On a client computer named Computer1, you download the installation files by using the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to-Run.
You need to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to all of the client computers as a Microsoft Application Visualization (App-V) package by using Configuration Manager.
What is the best action to perform first? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Configuration Manager, import a package.
B. Run appv_sequencer_setup.exe.
C. Run setup.exe.
D. From Configuration Manager, import an application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named WDS1. WDS1 is used to deploy an image of Windows 8.1 Pro named Image1 to the computers in a classroom. The computers are redeployed every day. WDS1 only contains
one install image.
Every morning on each computer, a technician must press F12, and then choose Image1.
You need to automate the process of deploying Image1 to the computers. Image1 must be deployed automatically to the computers when they are turned on.
Which two actions should you perform on WDS1? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure a Multicast Transmission.
B. Configure the Network settings.
C. Configure the Boot settings.
D. Configure the PXE Response settings.
E. Configure the Client settings.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager site that is used to deploy images, software, and Microsoft updates.
You have an image named Image1.
You need to apply multiple Microsoft updates to Image1.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From the Configuration Manager console, create a new automatic deployment rule.B. From the properties of Image1 in Configuration Manager, modify the servicing options.
C. From the Configuration Manager console, run the Schedule Updates action for Image1.
D. Apply Image1 to a client computer, and then apply the Microsoft updates.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In Sources.wim, you have a Windows 8.1 image named Image1.
You have an application named App1.exe. App1.exe is a self-contained application that does not require installation.
You mount Image1.
You need to add Appl.exe to Image1.
What should you run first?
A. Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage and the Path and FolderPath parameters
B. imagex.exe and the Append and Config parameters
C. dism.exe and the Image and AddPackage parameters
D. Copy-Item and the Path and Destination parameters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your company uses the computer builds shown in the following table

You plan to deploy Windows 8.1 Enterprise to the different computer builds by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
You need to recommend how many images must be created.
How many images is the best recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have an image named Image1 that contains an installation of Windows 8.1 Pro.
Image1 will be deployed by using Windows Deployments Services (WDS).
You need to ensure that all of the Internet Information Services components are installed when Image1 is deployed.
Which tool should you run before you deploy the image?
A. Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature
B. Add-WindowsPackage
C. imagex.exe
D. wdsutil.exe
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com that has two sites named Site1 and Site2.
The contoso.com domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) is installed on both of the servers. Server1 is located in Site1 and Server2 is located in
Site2.
You perform the following actions on Server1:
Import an operating system.
Import drivers.
Create a task sequence.
You copy the deployment share from Server1 to Server2 and you open the share on Server2 as MDTShare2.
You discover that clients that connect to MDTShare2 are deployed from Server1.
You need to ensure that the clients that connect to MDTShare2 are deployed from Server2.
What should you modify on Server2?
A. Bootstrap.ini
B. Customsettings.ini
C. The Rules properties of MDTShare2
D. the General properties of MDTShare2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You maintain a base operating system image for your company. The image does not contain hardware-specific drivers. The image is distributed to the desktop support team, which is responsible for maintaining a driver repository on a file
share named Share1.
You have a client computer named Client1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise. Client1 will be used as the reference computer for the next version of the base image.
You plan to generalize Client1, capture an image of Client1, and then distribute the image to the desktop support team.
You need to configure a Sysprep answer file to ensure that the next time the image starts, device drivers from Share1 are added to the local driver repository. The solution must ensure that the drivers are added without entering the Out-of-
Box-Experience (OOBE) phase.
Which configuration pass in the unattended file should you configure?
A. specialize
B. auditSystem
C. generalize
D. windowsPE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
You have a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
You install the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) on Computer1.
You sign in to Computer1 as a local user named User1. You insert the Windows 8.1 installation media into the DVD drive on Computer1.
You need to use Windows ADK to create an answer file for the deployment of Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
What should you do first?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run Copy-Item
B. From Windows System Image Manager, click Import Package(s).C. From Windows System Image Manager, click Create Configuration Set…
D. From Deployment and Imaging Tools Environment run dism.exe and specify the Mount-Wim parameter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
You have a custom install image of Windows 8.1 Enterprise named Image1. The image is in an image group named ImageGroup1 and is the only image in the group.
You need to ensure that only users who are the members of a security group named Admins can deploy Image1 by using PXE.
What should you use?
A. the Deny-WdsClient cmdlet and the RequestID parameter
B. the Set-WdsClient cmdlet and the Group parameter
C. the Set-WdslnstallImage cmdlet and the UserFilter parameter
D. the Approve-WdsClient cmdlet and the RequestID parameter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You have a 32-bit application named App1.
Your company uses the following device types:
Windows tablets
Android tablets
iOS tablets
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that App1 can be used on all devices.
What should you recommend?
A. an app package (.appx)
B. a RemoteApp program
C. a Windows Installer (MSI) package
D. A Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) application
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
You plan to add a server named Server1 as a distribution point. Server1 will be used only by client computers on the internal network that run Windows 8.1 Enterprise. The Windows Deployment Services server role will NOT be installed on
Server1.
You need to identify which firewall port on Server1 must be open to ensure that Configuration Manager clients can download application packages from Server1.
Which TCP port should you identify?
A. 53
B. 8080
C. 443
D. 636
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and a 64-bit UEFI-based computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
Server1 is a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
From the installation media of the 32-bit version of Windows 8.1, you add a boot image named Image1 to WDS.
You need to use WDS to capture an image of Computer1.
What should you do first on Server1?
A. Add an install image from the Windows 8.1 installation media.
B. Run wdsutil.exe and specify the New-CaptureImage and the Architecture:x64 parameters.
C. Add a boot image from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media.
D. Run wdsutil.exe and specify the New-CaptureImage and the Architecture:x86 parameters.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
You add a boot image and an install image to Server1.
You need to create a capture image.
Which tool should you use?
A. Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM)
B. the Windows PowerShell module for WDS
C. Oscdimg
D. the Windows Deployment Services console
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named Server1.
You have an image of Windows 8.1 Enterprise that you deploy by using WDS.
You need to add a video card driver to the image.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-WDSDriverPackage
B. Add-WindowsPackage
C. Import-WdsDriverPackage
D. Add-Windows Driver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
DRAG DROP
You are planning the deployment of new applications for users in several departments.
You have three user groups. The groups are shown in the following table

You need to identify the appropriate application delivery method for each department.
Which application delivery methods should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate application delivery methods to the correct departments. Each method may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split
bar between panes or scroll to view content.

QUESTION 22
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 is a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
You add an x86 capture image named Image1 and an x64 capture image named Image2 to WDS on Server1.
The network contains the client computers configured as shown in the following table.

You need to identify which capture image can be used on each computer.What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate images for each computer in the answer area.

 

QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP
You have a client computer that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise. The client computer has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You plan to capture images from Windows PE by running the New-Windowslmage cmdlet.
You mount a custom image of Windows PE.
You need to identify which three components must be added to the image.
Which three components should you add in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate components from the list of components to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

QUESTION 24
HOTSPOT
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that is integrated with the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2013.
You plan to replace an existing client computer that runs Windows 7 with a new computer and to install Windows 8.1 Enterprise on the new computer. The user data stored on the Windows 7 computer must be copied to the new computer.
You need to identify how many objects must be created from the Configuration Manager console to automate the replacement of the Windows 7 computer. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
How many objects of each type should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate number of objects of each type in the answer area.

 

QUESTION 25
HOTSPOT
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office is located in Montreal. The branch office is located in Seattle. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The WAN link is congested during business hours.
Each office has a high-bandwidth connection to the Internet.
The network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The relevant servers in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to use Server2 to perform an operating system deployment. The solution must minimize the amount of bandwidth used on the WAN link during business hours.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

QUESTION 26
HOTSPOT
You create the following configuration file that will be used to migrate content by using the User State Migration Tool (USMT):

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.

QUESTION 27
HOTSPOT
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have the users shown in the following table.

All computers are joined to the domain. You are evaluating the implementation of the Key Management Service (KMS) and Active Directory-Based Activation (ADBA). You need to identity which activation method can be used for each user type. What should you identify for each user type? To answer, select the appropriate activation methods for each user type in the answer area

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
You create a share on Server1 named Share1.On Computer1, you need to perform a Click-to-Run installation of Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus from Share1.
You extract the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to-Run on Server1.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order

QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table

All contoso.com clients are allowed access to cloud-based distribution points. You need to deploy a cloud-based distribution point. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

QUESTION 30
HOTSPOT
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
From a network share, you plan to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to the client computers in a branch office by using the Office Deployment Tool. The share is located at \\Server1\Office.
Some of the users in the branch office are consultants who often work for extended periods in customer locations. All other users in the branch office work in the customer service department.
During testing, you discover that Internet traffic spikes excessively during the installation of updates.
From the Office Deployment Tool, you create a configuration file named Config1.xml for the consultants and you create a configuration file named Config2.xml for the customer service department.
You need to ensure that the Office applications on all of the client computers are updated regularly. The solution must minimize the amount of Internet traffic, whenever possible.
Which configuration file should you modify and which configuration element should you add to the configuration file? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

QUESTION 31
HOTSPOT
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. The deployment contains the operating system images and the operating system installers shown in the following table.

You plan to create task sequences for the deployment of each operating system image and operating system installer.
You need to identify which boot images can be used to deploy the Windows 8.1 Enterprise operating system images and the operating system installers by using a task sequence.
Which boot images should you identify? To answer, select the valid boot images for each operating system image and operating system installer in the answer area.

QUESTION 32
HOTSPOT
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. Configuration Manager is integrated with the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2013.
You create an MDT Zero Touch Installation (ZTI) client task sequence named TS1 and deploy TS1 to a test computer named Client1. TS1 continually fails on Client1.
You need to add a task to TS1 to allow you to troubleshoot TS1 from Client1 interactively.
Which type of task should you add to TS1 and which ZTI component should the task reference? To answer, select the appropriate task type and ZTI component in the answer area.

QUESTION 33
DRAG DROP
You deploy the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) to a server named Server1.
You plan to deploy Windows 8.1 Enterprise to client computers by using MDT. You also plan to deploy two applications named App1 and App2.
You need to ensure that all of the client computers install App1 as part of their deployment of Windows 8.1 Enterprise. The solution must provide users with the ability to choose to install App2.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order

QUESTION 34
DRAG DROP
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named WDS1 that is used to deploy operating system images. You have a WIM file that contains an image of Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
You need to ensure that you can use WDS1 to deploy native-boot VHDs of Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence on WDS1? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order

QUESTION 35
DRAG DROP
Your company purchases 32-bit and 64-bit BIOS-based computers.
You plan to deploy Windows 8.1 Enterprise to the new computers by using a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named WDS1.
The company has several departments. The requirements of each department are described in the following table.You need to identity the minimum number of images that must be added to WDS1 to meet the department requirements.
How many boot images and install images should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate numbers to the correct images. Each number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.

 

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Exam 70-686: Windows 7, Enterprise Desktop Administrator: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-686.aspx

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have a minimum of three years of experience installing, configuring, and administering clients in
a Windows networked environment and also have experience deploying operating systems and applications. Candidates should be
familiar with the client administration capabilities of Windows Server and with management tools such as the System Center suite of products.

Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft PRO 70-686 practice test free of charge (42Q&As)

QUESTION 1
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest with a single domain.
Domain controllers are located in the companys offices in New York and Boston.
You deploy a group policy at the domain level that includes security filtering.
You discover that Group Policy object (GPO) settings are being applied to computers in the New York office, but not to computers in the Boston office.
You suspect there might be replication problems with the policies. What should you do?
A. Run a Group Policy Results report against computers in the Boston office.
B. Run a Group Policy Modeling report against computers in the Boston office.
C. Use the GpoTool.exe command-line tool.
D. Use the RepAdmin.exe command-line tool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Your companys network has client computers that run Windows 7.
A software vendor releases version 2 of an application that your company uses.
Your company currently uses version 1. Version 1 and version 2 are not compatible.
You plan to deploy version 2 of the application.
You have the following requirements:
You need to plan a software deployment process that meets the requirements. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Deploy version 2 of the application by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V).
B. Deploy version 2 of the application by using Microsoft Enterprise Desktop (MED-V).
C. Deploy version 2 of the application as a Remote Desktop Services RemoteApp.
D. Deploy version 2 of the application by using a Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager package.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Microsoft Application Virtualization (MS App-V) platform allows applications to be deployed in real-time to any client from a virtual application server. It removes the need for local installation of the applications. Instead, only the App-v client
needs to be installed on the client machines. All application data is permanently stored on the virtual application server. Whichever software is needed is either streamed or locally cached from the application server on demand and run locally.
The App-V stack sandboxes the execution environment so that the application does not make changes to the client itself (OS File System and/or Registry). App-V applications are also sandboxed from each other, so that different versions of
the same application can be run under
App-V concurrently.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microsoft_App-V

QUESTION 3
A company uses Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2010 to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The company is replacing existing computers with new 64-bit computers.
You have the following requirements:
You need to create an image that meets these requirements.
What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Import the Windows 7 Enterprise x86 source files.
B. From the MDT deployment workbench, select the Custom Task Sequence template.
C. Use a reference computer and capture a WIM image.
D. From the MDT deployment workbench, select the Sysprep and Capture template.
E. Import the necessary OEM drivers.
F. Import the 32-bit version of Office 2010.
G. Import the 64-bit version of Office 2010.
H. Import the Windows 7 Enterprise x64 source files.
Correct Answer: ABEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
hints:
The specialized hardware is compatible with Windows 7 but only 32-bit drivers are available from the manufacturer.

QUESTION 4
Your company’s network includes a main office and several branch offices. The branch offices are connected to the main office by high-latency links. All client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise, and all servers run Windows Server 2008
R2. Servers are located in each of the branch offices.
Client computers in the branch offices frequently access a specific group of files on a file server named Server1. These access requests consume significant amounts of bandwidth and reduce the speed of higher-priority traffic.
You need to reduce the bandwidth that is consumed by requests for frequently accessed files.
What should you do?
A. Configure BranchCache in Hosted Cache mode on client computers in the main office and the branch offices.
B. Configure BranchCache in Distributed Cache mode on client computers in the main office and the branch offices.
C. Enable the BranchCache For Network Files role service on Server1. Configure BranchCache in Distributed Cache mode on a server computer in only the branch offices.
D. Enable the BranchCache For Network Files role service on Server1. Configure BranchCache in Hosted Cache mode on a server computer in only the branch offices.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
BranchCacheTM is designed to reduce WAN link utilization and improve application responsiveness for branch office workers who access content from servers in remote locations. Branch office client computers use a locally maintained
cache of data to reduce traffic over a WAN link. The cache can be distributed across client computers (Distributed Cache mode) or can be housed on a server in the branch (Hosted Cache mode).
Distributed Cache mode
If client computers are configured to use Distributed Cache mode, the cached content is distributed among client computers on the branch office network. No infrastructure or services are required in the branch office beyond client computers
running Windows 7.
Hosted Cache mode
In hosted cache mode, cached content is maintained on a computer running Windows Server 2008 R2 on the branch office network.
hints: no server are located in the branch office. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd637832(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 5
A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named SERVER01 has the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) role installed. SERVER02 is running DHCP services. You prestage computer objects in Active Directory. You plan to use WDS to deploy
Windows 7 to the prestaged computers. When you try to deploy an image by using PXE, the process fails. You need to ensure that SERVER01 responds to prestaged client computers only. From WDS, what should you do? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. On the DHCP tab, select Configure DHCP option 60 to indicate that this server is also a PXE server.
B. On the Advanced tab, select Authorize this Windows Deployment Services server in DHCP.
C. On the PXE Response tab, select Respond to all client computers (known and unknown).
D. On the DHCP tab, select Do not listen on Port 67.
E. On the PXE Response tab, select Respond only to known client computers.
F. On the Advanced tab, select Do not authorize this Windows Deployment Services server in DHCP.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
hints: prestaged computers = known client computers

QUESTION 6
Your company has a custom Web application that uses a self-signed SSL certificate. The company has an internal certification authority (CA) and uses autoenrollment. When external users attempt to start the Web application, Internet
Explorer displays an error message that recommends closing the Web page rather than continuing to the application. You need to ensure that Internet Explorer does not display the error message. What should you do?
A. Install the current certificate into the personal store on each client computer. Add the applications URL to the Trusted Sites zone in Internet Explorer.
B. Install the current certificate into the computer store on each client computer.
C. Purchase and install a commercial certificate on the CA server. Ensure that users trust the issuing CA.D. Issue a root certificate from the internal CA on the external users computers.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Your companys network is shown in the following diagram

There is a VPN between Branch Officebranch office B and the Core Networkcore network.
The company plans to deploy Windows 7 to all client computers.
You need to manage the deployment to ensure that client computers in branch office A and in branch office B can activate Windows.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Configure DNS so that client computers in branch office A use the Key Management Service (KMS) in the core network.
B. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in branch office B.
C. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in branch office A.
D. Configure DNS so that client computers in branch office B use the Key Management Service (KMS) in the core network.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You are deploying an App-V client application to the New York office.
You need to ensure that the application will be installed at a specific time.
What should you use to deploy the application?
A. ConfigMgr
B. a Group Policy object (GPO) with a software installation policy.
C. MED-V
D. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Your company has client computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise.
Each computer in the company is required to boot into a different Windows 7 application environment without compromising the main Windows 7 Enterprise installation.
You need to create a new Native Boot VHD that will host the alternate Windows 7 environments.
Which command should you use?
A. BCDEdit.exe
B. Bootcfg.exe
C. DiskPart.exe
D. BCDboot.exe
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.techexams.net/forums/windows-7-exams/66547-bcdedit-bcdboot- difference.html
BCDboot is a tool used to quickly set up a system partition, or to repair the boot environment located on the system partition. The system partition is set up by copying a small set of boot environment files from an installed Windows?image.
BCDboot also creates a Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store on the system partition with a new boot entry that enables you to boot to the installed Windows image. BCDEdit is a command-line tool for managing BCD stores. It can be used for
a variety of purposes, including creating new stores, modifying existing stores, adding boot menu parameters, and so on. BCDEdit serves essentially the same purpose as Bootcfg.exe on earlier versions of Windows, but with two major
improvements

QUESTION 10
Your company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and 1,000 Windows 7 computers. You are planning to deploy a custom application. You need to schedule the deployment to occur outside of business hours and
without user interaction.
What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Create a collection with the required computers and assign the software to the collection.
B. Create a software installation Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Assign the policy to the root of the Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.
D. Create a software deployment package by using System Center Configuration Manager 2007.
E. Create an unattend.xml file.
F. Create a silent install MSI file.
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
hints: without user interaction = silent install MSI file

QUESTION 11
A network consists of 1,000 laptop computers that run Windows XP. The computers do not have access to the corporate network.
You plan to migrate 200 of the computers immediately to Windows 7. The remainder will be migrated over the next several months.
You need to plan the most efficient method for activating all of the computers.
What should you do?
A. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent for the first 200 computers, and then use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Proxy for the remaining computers.
B. Use the Key Management Service (KMS) for all the computers.
C. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent for all the computers.
D. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Proxy for the first 200 computers, and then use the Key Management Service (KMS) for the remaining computers.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Key Management Service (KMS) requires a count of 25 or higher from the KMS host to activate itself.refer to http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee939272.aspx MAK:
If users install a MAK using the user interface (UI), the MAK client attempts to activate itself over the Internet one time. If the users install a MAK using the Slmgr.vbs script, the MAK client does not try to activate itself automatically. refer to
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff793438.aspx Hints:
The computers do not have access to the internet

QUESTION 12
Your company’s network is shown in the following diagram

Each office is connected to the Internet through a high-bandwidth connection. The branch offices are connected to the core network through low-bandwidth connections. Microsoft Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) must provide software updates for all offices. You need to design the WSUS infrastructure to minimize traffic over the low-bandwidth connections. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Deploy BranchCache on the WSUS server and client computers B. Configure WSUS to use updates that are stored locally C. Configure WSUS to use updates that are stored on Microsoft Update D. Deploy Quality of Service (QoS) on the WSUS server and client computers E. Deploy WSUS servers in the branch offices Correct Answer: CE Explanation Explanation/Reference: WSUS update from Microsoft update is faster then core network Deploy WSUS servers in each branch office in order to provide WSUS server for branch client. hints: 1. Each office is connected to the Internet through a high-bandwidth connection. 2. The branch offices are connected to the core network through low-bandwidth connections.

QUESTION 13
Your network is configured as shown in the following diagramYou are planning to deploy Windows 7. You have the following requirements: ?Use BitLocker on all computers in the isolated network. ?Provide DirectAccess on all portable computers. ?Use the Key Management Service (KMS) to activate all client computers. You need to plan a client computer licensing strategy that meets the requirements. What should you do? A. License 500 copies of Windows 7 Ultimate. B. License 500 copies of Windows 7 Enterprise. C. License 350 copies of Windows 7 Professional, license 150 copies of Windows 7 Ultimate, and purchase Software Assurance for the Windows 7 Professional licenses. D. License 350 copies of Windows 7 Enterprise, and license 150 copies of Windows 7 Ultimate. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: hints: Direct Access only available for Ultimate and Enterprise only. Company should use Enterprise version

QUESTION 14
Your company has 1,000 client computers that run Windows 7. The company uses several custom line-of-business applications that are not compatible with Windows 7.
You need to distribute a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) virtual machine (VM) image that includes the custom applications to all Windows 7 client computers.
What should you do?
A. Mount the VM image from the MED-V workspace.
B. Deploy the VM image from the MED-V server.
C. Deploy the VM image by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
D. Deploy the VM image by using Windows Server Update Services (WSUS).
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Your company plans to upgrade all client computers to Windows 7.
The company uses a custom line-of-business application. The application contains sensitive data. The application will not run on Windows 7
You establish that Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) is the appropriate technology to allow your organization to continue to use the application.
You need to ensure that the virtual machine (VM) images that contain sensitive data can be used only when the user is connected to the MED-V server.
What should you do?
A. Using MED-V TrimTransfer technology, deploy the VM image over the network
B. In the MED-V console, configure the MED-V workspace to prevent offline operation
C. Use BitLocker Drive Encryption to encrypt the drive on which the VM image is stored
D. Using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager, deploy the VM image to an image store directory
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
The client computers in your network run either Windows XP or Windows 7. All client computers are in a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) organizational unit (OU) named MyClients.You install Windows Software Update Services (WSUS). You create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables automatic updates from the WSUS server, and you link the GPO to the MyClients OU. You place all client computers in a targeting
group named MyClients.
Testing reveals that a security update that is applicable to both Windows XP and Windows 7 causes a line-of-business application to fail on the Windows XP client computers.
You need to ensure that the application runs on the Windows XP client computers and that the Windows 7 client computers receive the security update.
What should you do?
A. Remove the Windows XP client computers from the MyClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the All Computers targeting group.
B. Remove the Windows 7 client computers from the MyClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the All Computers targeting group.
C. Create a targeting group named MyXPClients beneath the MyClients targeting group.
Move the Windows XP client computers to the MyXpClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the MyClients targeting group.
D. Remove the Windows 7 client computers from the MyClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the Unassigned Computers targeting group.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
All computers targeting group = assigned group and unassigned group. Unassigned computer targeting group = all computer which is not assign to any group

untitled hints: Windows 7 remove from MyClients = unassigned computer targeting group Windows XP = MyClients targeting group update will only done for unassigned computer targeting group

QUESTION 17
Your company uses Microsoft Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) to deploy software updates and service packs. Microsoft releases a security update for Windows 7. You have the following requirements: The security update must be
deployed by 5:00 P.M. on Friday. Computers that are off when the security update is deployed must install the security update as soon as they are turned on. You need to manage the software update process to meet the requirements. What
should you do?
A. Approve the security update for installation through the WSUS console with no deadline.
B. Approve the security update for download through the WSUS console with a deadline of Friday at 5:00 P.M.
C. Approve the security update for installation through the WSUS console with a deadline of Friday at 5:00 P.M.
D. Approve the security update for download through the WSUS console with no deadline.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Hints:
1. question mention at friday 5pm
2. question request install update in stead of download update

QUESTION 18
Your company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named contoso.com that uses Active DirectoryCintegrated DNS.
You deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) on a Windows 7 computer.
You need to ensure that Windows 7 client computers can locate the KMS host and perform activation.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Create and deploy a GPO firewall rule to allow RPC traffic through TCP port 1688 on the client computers.
B. Deploy a Windows Server 2008 KMS host.
C. Grant the KMS server the Full Control permission on the _vlmcs._tcp.contoso.com DNS record.
D. Grant the KMS server the Full Control permission on the _msdcs._tcp.contoso.com DNS zone.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee939272.aspx The KMS clients find the KMS host via a DNS SRV record (_vlmcs._tcp) and then automatically attempt to discover and use this service to activate themselves. When in the 30 day Out
of Box grace period, they will try to activate every 2 hours. Once activated, the KMS clients will attempt a renewal every 7days.
Listening on Port:
Communication with KMS is via anonymous RPC. 1688 is the default TCP port used by the clients to connect to the KMS host. Make sure this port is open between your KMS clients and the KMS host.

QUESTION 19
Your network contains 5 servers that have the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The servers host a Remote Desktop RemoteApp named App1.
You need to recommend a solution for App1 that meets the following requirements:
?Must ensure that users can connect to any Remote Desktop Session Host server
?Must ensure that users are automatically reconnected to disconnected sessions
What should you include in the recommendations?
A. Windows Virtual PC and Windows XP Mode
B. Remote Desktop Web Access
C. Remote Desktop Gateway
D. Windows Deployment Services
E. Remote Desktop Connection Broker
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Remote Desktop Connection Broker (RD Connection Broker), formerly Terminal Services Session Broker (TS Session Broker), is used to provide users with access to RemoteApp and Desktop Connection. RemoteApp and Desktop
Connection provides users a single, personalized, and aggregated view of RemoteApp programs, session-based desktops, and virtual desktops to users. RD Connection Broker supports load balancing and reconnection to existing sessions
on virtual desktops, Remote Desktop sessions, and RemoteApp programs accessed by using RemoteApp and Desktop Connection. RD Connection Broker also aggregates RemoteApp sources from multiple Remote Desktop Session Host
(RD Session Host) servers that may host different RemoteApp programs. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd560675(v=WS.10).aspx

QUESTION 20
Your company has two network segments. The core network segment is where centralized management is performed. The high-security network segment is an isolated network. A firewall between the core network segment and the high-
security network segment limits network communication between the segments.
These network segments are shown in the following diagram

Your company plans to deploy Windows 7 to all client computers.
You need to manage activation for client computers that are located in the high-security network segment.
What should you do?A. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in the core network segment.
B. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in the high-security network segment.
C. Install the Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) in the core network segment.
D. Install the Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) in the high-security network segment.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Key Management Service (KMS) requires a count of 25 or higher from the KMS host to activate itself.
refer to http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee939272.aspx There is a firewall blocking, (VAMT) should setup at high-security network.

QUESTION 21
Your company has client computers that run Windows XP Professional.
You are planning to install Windows 7 Enterprise on the existing client computers.
You need to ensure that the user state can be viewed after it has been collected and saved.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Perform an offline migration by using Windows PE.
B. Use an uncompressed migration store.
C. Perform an offline migration by using Windows.old.
D. Use a hard-link migration store.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A company runs Windows Server 2008 R2 in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) environment. Windows 7 is installed on all the companys client computers.
You add a domain user account named User1 to the local Administrators group on a client computer named PC01. When User1 returns to the office, User1 does not have administrative access on PC01.
When you inspect PC01, you find that the local Administrators group does not contain the user account. You need to ensure that User1 is a member of the local Administrators group.
Which Group Policy setting should you select? To answer, select the appropriate Group Policy setting in the work area

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
You are designing a Windows 7 deployment image.
You plan to install Windows 7 Enterprise with a Multiple Activation Key (MAK).
You need to add the MAK to the configuration pass by using an answer file.
To which configuration pass should you add the MAK?

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
You are the desktop architect for an enterprise organization with computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise.
You need to create a customized WinPE image.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriateactions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order,) 

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
A company has client computers in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) environment. You deploy a new wireless access point (WAP). Third-party security software
controls access to the wireless network.
Users are able to connect to the wireless network and access the Internet but are unable to access the company’s file servers.
You need to enable users to connect to the file servers by using the wireless network.
Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
You use Microsoft Application Compatibility Manager to produce a report that lists a company’s applications and their compatibility status with Windows 7.
You need to add your ratings of the compatibility of the applications to the report.
Which Microsoft Application Compatibility Manager action should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
All client computers in a company run Windows 7 Enterprise. The company creates Windows PowerShell scripts to collect statistical data from client computers. A logon script is configured to run the PowerShell scripts during logon.
An error occurs when the scripts are run on client computers.
You need to ensure that all PowerShell scripts run correctly.
Which command should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate component from the list of components to the correct location or locations in the work area.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
A company runs Windows Server 2008 R2 in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) environment. Windows 7 is installed on all client computers.
Users discover that they cannot delete files that they have created and placed in their local folders.
You need to enable users to modify file permissions.
Which setting should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
A company’s server runs Windows 2008 R2 with Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). All client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise.
You need to automate the distribution of Windows security updates to all client computers by meeting the following requirements:
1) Point all client computers to the WSUS server.
2) Schedule updates to install at a specific time.
3) Run the updates immediately after Windows starts if the computer missed the originally scheduled updates.
You need to configure Group Policy to meet the requirements.
Which settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
You use Group Policy to configure Windows 7 Enterprise client computers.
You need to modify a Group Policy object (GPO) to specify a custom location for the temp folder.
Which setting should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
A company has client computers that run windows 7. A new corporate security policy states that all client computers in the legal department should allow only inbound and outbound network connections for which there is an existing firewall
rule.
You need to ensure that all client computers in the legal department are configured to follow the new security policy.
Which settings should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
You are the desktop architect for an enterprise organization with computers that run Windows 7.
You need to create a Group Policy object (GPO) to prevent Windows Explorer from starting until all logon scripts have finished.
Which setting should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
You are designing a Windows 7 image creation strategy for a multilingual deployment. You currently have an English language image of Windows 7.
The deployment must meet the following requirements:
You need to recommend an action plan that meets the deployment requirements.
Which two actions should be performed in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
Active Directory Domain Services (AD OS) is running on windows Server 2008 R2.
You decide to audit changes to AD DS.
Administrative users in San Diego add new users to the domain without approval. You configure the audit policy settings in the San Diego Policy Group Policy object (GPO) and set up auditing in object System Access Control Lists, YOU
verify that the GPO is being applied to the resources in the San Diego OUs, but auditing still does not work.
You need to select the GPO to ensure that users added by the San Diego administrative users are audited.
Which GPO should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
A company has a main office and two branch offices named Branch Site 1 and Branch Site 2. The main office has a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Branch Site 2 also has a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. The branch
offices do not have direct access to the Internet.
Windows 7 Enterprise is installed on all client computers. A diagram of the network is shown in the exhibit.
Corporate policy dictates that all updates must be approved by the IT department before being deployed.
Using the hardware configuration shown in the exhibit, you need to design a Windows Update strategy to meet the following goals:
What should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate answer to the correct location or locations in the work area.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
A server runs Windows Server 2008 P2 with Remote Desktop Services (RDS).
You add an application to Remote Desktop RemoteApp.
You need to ensure that the application can be published by using Group Policy.
Which setting should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
You are designing a Windows 7 Enterprise custom image. You create an autounattend.xml file by using Windows System Image Manager (SIM). This file will be used when the image is deployed.
You are planning to install Windows 7 on a second hard disk in a computer. You configure the DiskID setting.
You need to select the configuration pass where you will add the DiskID setting.
Which option should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
A company has a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) environment. The domain controllers were recently upgraded from Windows Server 2003. You are using Group Policy to deploy
applications to the client computers remotely. The computers reboot each night as part of routine maintenance.
You need to ensure that the application installs when the computer starts up.
Which Group Policy setting should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
All portable computers on a company’s wireless network run windows 7 Enterprise.
You need to ensure that users can connect only to the predefined SSID shown in the work area.
Which Group Policy object (GPO) settings should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
You are managing data migration from an existing Windows 7 computer to a new Windows 7 computer. You need to migrate user and application data from the existing computer to the new computer.
Which command should you run on the existing and new computers? (To answer, drag the appropriate commands to the correct location in the work area.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
An enterprise organization has computers that run Windows 7. Users log on to the Contoso.com domain from their client computers.
A user is unable to log on to the domain. The user changed his password the previous night and was unable to log on this morning. After reviewing the event logs, you notice a large amount of NETLOGON errors.
You need to ensure that the user can log on to the domain.
Which command should you run? (To answer, drag the appropriate command and parameter from the list of commands and parameters to the correct location or locations in the work area.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
You are updating the corporate image to add drivers to support a new device.
You need to meet company requirements for updating images.
Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam 70-673: TS: Designing, Assessing, and Optimizing Software Asset Management (SAM): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-673.aspx

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have three years of on-the-job experience in an IT environment. They are familiar with business processes
and audit procedures (for example, ITIL SAM-related standards and ISO/IEC 19770 standards that support the SAM life cycle, including
acquisition, inventory, discovery, deployment, reconciliation, maintenance, and retirement).

Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft MCTS 70-673 practice test free of charge (32Q&As)

QUESTION 1
How many years of experience do you have designing, assessing, and optimizing Software Asset
Management (SAM)?
A. I have not done this yet.
B. Less than 3 months
C. 3-6 months
D. More than 6 months but less than 1 year
E. 1-2 years
F. 2-3 years
G. 3 or more years
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Rate your level of proficiency with assessing SAM programs by using the SAM Optimization Model,
including defining scope, assessing SAM processes throughout an organization, assigning maturity levels
according to the 10 components of the SAM Optimization Model, and performing gap analysis between
current and desired maturity levels.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Rate your level of proficiency with performing software license reviews, including conducting inventories,
validating and managing license entitlement records, and reconciling software inventories and report
license compliance status.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Rate your level of proficiency with coordinating technologies, including managing data collection, data
interfaces between disparate data sources, and reporting.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Rate your level of proficiency with designing, implementing, and managing a SAM program, including
securing executive sponsorship and funding.A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Rate your level of proficiency with managing the Software Asset life cycle, including acquisition,
deployment, maintenance, and retirement.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Rate your level of proficiency with IT procurement, IT contract negotiations and management (i.e. software
licensing, terms and conditions), and IT operations (i.e. application package management, network
administration).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Rate your level of proficiency with Microsoft licensing models and product use right (PUR).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Rate your level of proficiency with audit procedures (i.e. ITIL SAM-related standards, ISO/IEC 19770
standards).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Rate your level of proficiency with Microsoft Operations Framework (MOF).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your customer has one office. All software and hardware purchasing is centralized. You need to define the
scope of a SAM program assessment for the customer.
Which information should you collect?
A. current license versions
B. install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities
C. list of people responsible for SAM sign-off
D. quantity of server licenses
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You collect the following information from a customer:
dolume license agreements
bardware and software inventory procedures
You need to define the scope of a SAM program assessment for the customer.
Which information should you use?
A. physical asset locations
B. preferred software vendor
C. number of contract employees
D. number of IT staff
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You plan to assess your customer’s Microsoft SQL Server deployment for license compliance. The
customer licenses SQL Server by using per-processor licenses.
You need to define the scope of the SAM assessment.
What should you do?
A. Gather all SQL Server Client Access Licenses (CALs).
B. Gather all Windows Server Client Access Licenses (CALs).
C. Identify infrastructure groups where SQL Server is installed.
D. Identify infrastructure groups where SQL Server is accessed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Your customer has one main office in Boston and three branch offices in London, New York, and Paris. All
purchasing, software deployment, and inventory is centralized in the New York office. Microsoft Office is
installed in only the Paris office. The main data center is in the London office. You plan to perform a SAM
program assessment of Office for the customer. You need to visit one of the offices to collect data for the
assessment.
Which office should you visit?
A. BostonB. London
C. New York
D. Paris
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You plan to perform a SAM optimization assessment for a customer. You need to identify the phase during
which roles, expectation, and responsibilities are assigned.
Which phase should you identify?
A. infrastructure analysis
B. optimization and planning
C. SAM discussions
D. workshop preparation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You design a SAM program for a customer.
You implement an asset management system.
You need to design a process to identify all owned software licenses. What should you integrate into the
asset management system?
A. an auto-discovery tool
B. a change management system
C. a human resources system
D. a procurement system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You need to design a SAM program that meets the following requirements:
xnables the reuse of desktop software licenses.
xnables the implementation of server virtualization technology. 稥nables a complete refresh of all desktop
and server hardware within the next six months.
What should you include in the program?
A. decentralized software decision making
B. decentralized software purchasing
C. network infrastructure mapping
D. software and hardware mapping
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You plan to implement a SAM program for a customer. You collect the following information:
xecutive sponsorship and budget approval
bardware inventory that includes 60 percent of all computers xicrosoft License Statement (MLS) that is
reconciled against license purchase records You need to identify the applications installed on all
networked computers.
What should you implement?
A. an application patch management tool
B. a SAM program dashboard
C. a software discovery tool
D. a software license tracking toolCorrect Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your customer does not track any software licenses. You confirm that the customer is out of compliance
with several vendor agreements.
You need to implement a SAM program for the customer.
What should you do first?
A. Stop all software purchases.
B. Purchase and implement a SAM tool.
C. Convert product licenses to volume license agreements.
D. Present the benefits of the SAM program to the customer’s executives.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Your customer has a SAM program. The customer installs SAM tools that monitor approved software
installations.
You need to monitor whether the customer adheres to approved software installation policies.
What should you do?
A. Perform quarterly inventory verifications.
B. Perform quarterly license metering verifications.
C. Perform quarterly hardware inventory verifications.
D. Perform quarterly human resources audits for new employees.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Your software acquisition policy includes the following statements:
deceiving must be managed.
xurchasing must be centralized.
You need to improve the software acquisition policy.
Which process should you add to the policy?
A. Collect all historical purchasing information.
B. Collect all historical proof of licenses (POLs).
C. Purchase from any software vendor.
D. Purchase from only approved software vendors.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You manage a software asset lifecycle for a customer. The customer has centralized purchasing. You
discover that some employees purchase software by using their personal credit cards.
You need to control employee software purchases.
What should you do?
A. Monitor employee expense reports on a monthly basis.
B. Identify approved software vendors in the product catalog.
C. Identify reclaimed licenses from decommissioned hardware.
D. Monitor license recovery information based on software usage.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Your customer allows employees to purchase and install software on company computers. You need to
ensure that the customer can take advantage of volume licensing.
What should you do?A. Identify and purchase all software through approved software vendors.
B. Collect all hardware inventory information and then identify all approved hardware vendors.
C. Implement a software discovery tool and then generate a Microsoft Product License Advisor (MPLA)
report.
D. Request a Microsoft License Statement (MLS) and then generate a Microsoft Product License Advisor
(MPLA) report.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Your customer purchases Microsoft Office Project 2003 under a volume license agreement. The customer
does not have Microsoft Software Assurance.
The customer installs 200 copies of Project 2007.
You need to ensure that the customer is in compliance with software licensing. The solution must minimize
costs.
What should you do?
A. Purchase Microsoft Software Assurance.
B. Purchase 200 full packaged product (FPP) licenses for Microsoft Office Project 2007.
C. Purchase 200 full packaged product (FPP) licenses for Microsoft Office Standard 2007.
D. Purchase 200 Microsoft Office Project 2007 licenses through the customer’s volume licensing
agreement.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Your software inventory report identifies several installations of unapproved software on employee
computers.
You need to implement a process that prevents employees from installing software.
What should you include in the process?
A. Install a network monitoring tool.
B. Update the software and hardware inventory.
C. Request that an IT administrator modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs).
D. Generate a license advisor report and contact the Business Software Alliance (BSA).
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your customer uses Microsoft Office Excel to maintain an inventory of software and hardware assets. You
need to recommend a tool that generates daily reports on changes to the inventory of applications installed
on computers.
Which tool should you recommend?
A. a network monitoring tool
B. a procurement tool
C. the SAM ROI Calculator
D. a software asset inventory tool
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Your customer completes an internal audit. The audit concludes that the customer does not maintain
hardware and software inventories.
You need to implement a process that enables the customer to maintain hardware and software
inventories.
Which step should you include in the process?A. Gather install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities.
B. Collect cost savings information related to reusing software.
C. Purchase all software and hardware from an online auction site.
D. Collect hardware purchase history and generate a Microsoft Product License Advisor (MPLA) report.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Your customer has an Active Directory forest that contains a Microsoft System Center Configuration
Manager (CfgMgr) server.
Users have portable computers that are frequently disconnected from the network. The customer does not
have a change management system in place. The current hardware inventory is out-of-date. You need to
update the hardware inventory to meet the following requirements:
xnsure that all desktop and portable computers are included in the inventory. kinimize the amount of time
it takes to update the inventory.
What should you do?
A. Perform a network discovery scan.
B. Perform a manual count of all desktop computers.
C. Gather install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities.
D. Gather information from the Active Directory database, the CfgMgr database, and the purchasing
history.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Your customer’s network consists of one Active Directory forest. The network contains a Microsoft System
Center Configuration Manager (CfgMgr) server and a Microsoft System Center Operations Manager
(OpsMgr) server.
All computers are joined to the Active Directory domain and have both CfgMgr and OpsMgr clients
installed.
You plan to manage the software and hardware retirement process for the customer.
You need to identify all retired desktop computers.
What should you do?
A. Generate a CfgMgr report.
B. Generate an OpsMgr report.
C. Review the Active Directory Group Policy objects (GPOs).
D. Review the Active Directory domain controller event viewer logs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You manage the software and hardware retirement process for a customer. The customer does not have
Microsoft Software Assurance.
The customer plans to retire desktop computers that have the following characteristics:
l’ll hardware is more than three years old.
i’ll desktop computers have Windows preinstalled.
i’ll Microsoft Office licenses are purchased under a volume license agreement. You need to recommend a
solution for reusing licenses.
What should you recommend?
A. Reuse none of the licenses.
B. Reuse all licenses for Office.
C. Reuse all licenses for Windows.
D. Purchase Software Assurance and reuse all licenses.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
You manage all software licenses for a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso licenses all Windows
desktop computers under an OEM licensing agreement and all Microsoft Office Professional licenses
under a volume licensing agreement.
Following an acquisition, Contoso plans to transfer all licenses to an unaffiliated company named Litware,
Inc.
You need to transfer all licenses from Contoso to Litware. Which two actions should you perform? (Each
correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Complete a transfer request form for all Office licenses.
B. Complete a transfer request form for all Windows licenses.
C. Transfer all desktop computers from Contoso to Litware.
D. Transfer all Certificate of Authenticity (COA) stickers from Contoso computers and to Litware
computers.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 32
Your customer has an office in New York.
The customer plans to donate 400 desktop computers to a local nonprofit organization. All computers have
Windows preinstalled.
You need to ensure that the customer can donate the computers and remain in compliance with all
applicable licensing agreements. The solution must provide as many hardware and software resources as
possible for the nonprofit organization.
What should you do?
A. Remove the operating system and Certificate of Authenticity (COA) from each computer. Transfer the
computers to the nonprofit organization.
B. Reinstall Windows by using the original media. Transfer the computers, media, Certificates of
Authenticity (COAs), and manuals to the nonprofit organization.
C. Purchase a Windows license for each computer under a volume licensing agreement. Transfer the
computer and the license to the nonprofit organization.
D. Remove the hard disks from all computers. Transfer the computers to the nonprofit organization and
recommend that they purchase a new Windows license for each computer under a full packaged
product (FPP) licensing agreement.
Correct Answer: B

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