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QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription that includes an Azure key vault named Vault1. You create the Azure virtual machines shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 An administrator plans to create a function app in Azure that will have the following settings: Runtime stack: .NET Core Operating System: Linux Plan type: Consumption Enable Application Insights: Yes You need to ensure that you can back up the function app. Which settings should you recommend changing before creating the function app? A. Runtime stack B. Enable Application Insights C. Operating System D. Plan type Correct Answer: D The Backup and Restore feature requires the App Service plan to be in the Standard, Premium or Isolated tier. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/manage-backup#requirements-and-restrictions
QUESTION 3 You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. A user named Admin1 attempts to create an access review from the Azure Active Directory admin center and discovers that the Access reviews settings are unavailable. Admin1 discovers that all the other Identity Governance settings are available. Admin1 is assigned the User administrator, Compliance administrator, and Security administrator roles. You need to ensure that Admin1 can create access reviews in contoso.com. Solution: You assign the Service administrator role to Admin1. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Instead use Azure AD Privileged Identity Management. Note: PIM essentially helps you manage the who, what, when, where, and why for resources that you care about. Key features of PIM include: Conduct access reviews to ensure users still need roles References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure
QUESTION 4 You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components installed. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal. B. Create an automation account. C. Upload a configuration script. D. Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template. E. Create an Azure policy. Correct Answer: AD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/tutorial-install-apps-template
QUESTION 5 You are planning the move of App1 to Azure. You create a network security group (NSG). You need to recommend a solution to provide users with access to App1. What should you recommend? A. Create an outgoing security rule for port 443 from the Internet. Associate the NSG to all the subnets. B. Create an incoming security rule for port 443 from the Internet. Associate the NSG to all the subnets. C. Create an incoming security rule for port 443 from the Internet. Associate the NSG to the subnet that contains the web servers. D. Create an outgoing security rule for port 443 from the Internet. Associate the NSG to the subnet that contains the web servers. Correct Answer: C As App1 is public-facing we need an incoming security rule, related to the access of the web servers. Scenario: You have a public-facing application named App1. App1 is comprised of the following three tiers: aSQL database, a web front end, and a processing middle tier. Each tier is comprised of five virtual machines. Users access the web front end by using HTTPS only.
QUESTION 6 HOTSPOT Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named adatum.onmicrosoft.com. Adatum.com contains the user accounts in the following table.
You need to implement Azure AD Connect. The solution must follow the principle of least privilege. Which user accounts should you use in Adatum.com and Adatum.onmicrosoft.com to implement Azure AD Connect? To answer select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Box 1: User5 In Express settings, the installation wizard asks for the following: AD DS Enterprise Administrator credentials Azure AD Global Administrator credentials The AD DS Enterprise Admin account is used to configure your on-premises Active Directory. These credentials are only used during the installation and are not used after the installation has completed. The Enterprise Admin, not the Domain Admin should make sure the permissions in Active Directory can be set in all domains. Box 2: UserA Azure AD Global Admin credentials are only used during the installation and are not used after the installation has completed. It is used to create the Azure AD Connector account used for synchronizing changes to Azure AD. The account also enables sync as a feature in Azure AD. Reference:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/connect/active-directory-aadconnect-accounts-permissions
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Supscription1 contains the resources in the following table.
VNet1 is in RG1. VNet2 is in RG2. There is no connectivity between VNet1 and VNet2. An administrator named Admin1 creates an Azure virtual machine named VM1 in RG1. VM1 uses a disk named Disk1 and connects to VNet1. Admin1 then installs a custom application in VM1. You need to move the custom application to VNet2. The solution must minimize administrative effort. Which two actions should you perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You create and save an Azure Resource Manager template named Template1 that includes the following four sections.
You deploy template1. For each of the following statement, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table.
Subnet1 is on VNET1. VM1 connects to Subnet1. You plan to create a virtual network gateway on VNET1. You need to prepare the environment for the planned virtual network gateway. What are two ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a subnet named GatewaySubnet on VNET1. B. Delete Subnet1. C. Modify the address space used by Subnet1. D. Modify the address space used by VNET1 E. Create a local network gateway. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10 You create a container image named Image1 on a developer workstation. You plan to create an Azure Web App for Containers named WebAppContainer that will use Image1. You need to upload Image1 to Azure. The solution must ensure that WebAppContainer can use Image1. To which storage type should you upload Image1? A. Azure Container Registry B. an Azure Storage account that contains a blob container C. an Azure Storage account that contains a file share D. Azure Container Instances Correct Answer: A Configure registry credentials in web app. App Service needs information about your registry and image to pull the private image. In the Azure portal, go to Container settings from the web app and update the Image source, Registry and save. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/targets/webapp-on-container-linux
QUESTION 11 You have an Azure key vault named KV1. You need to ensure that applications can use KV1 to provision certificates automatically from an external certification authority (CA). Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From KV1, create a certificate issuer resource. B. Obtain the CA account credentials. C. Obtain the root CA certificate. D. From KV1, create a certificate signing request (CSR). E. From KV1, create a private key, Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 12 You need to create a new virtual machine image in Azure from VM1. Which three actions should you perform before you create the new image? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Remove the Backup (volume shadow copy) integration service B. Generalize VM1 C. Run Add-AzureRmVhd and specify a blob service container as the destination D. Run Add-AzureRmVhd and specify a file share as the destination E. Reduce the amount of memory to 16 GB F. Convert the disk type to VHD Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 13 You have an Azure Container Registry and an Azure container instance. You pull an image from the registry, and then update the local copy of the image. You need to ensure that the updated image can be deployed to the container instance. The solution must ensure that you can deploy the updated image or the previous version of the image. What should you do? A. Run the docker image push command and specify the tag parameter. B. Run the az image copy command and specify the tag parameter. C. Run the az aks update command and specify the attach-acr parameter. D. Run the kubect1 apply command and specify the dry-run parameter. Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 2 An application uses OAuth to get access to several API resources on behalf of an end user. What are two valid parameters to send to the authorization server as part of the first step of an authorization code grant flow? (Choose two.) A. URI to which the authorization server will send the user-agent back when access is granted or denied B. list of the API resources that the application is requesting to access C. secret that was generated by the authorization server when the application registered as an OAuth integration D. list of scopes that correspond to the API resources to which the application is requesting to access E. name of the application under which the application registered as an OAuth integration Correct Answer: AC
Refer to the exhibit. An Intersight API is being used to query RackUnit resources that have a tag keyword set to “Site”. What is the expected output of this command? A. list of all resources that have a tag with the keyword “Site” B. error message because the Value field was not specified C. error message because the tag filter should be lowercase D. list of all sites that contain RackUnit tagged compute resources Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A web application is susceptible to cross-site scripting. Which two methods allow this issue to be mitigated? (Choose two.) A. Use only drop downs. B. Limit user input to acceptable characters. C. Encrypt user input on the client side. D. Use AES encryption to secure the script. E. Remove all HTML/XML tags from user input. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 A user is receiving a 429 Too Many Requests error. Which scheme is the server employing that causes this error? A. rate limiting B. time outs C. caching D. redirection Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 An automated solution is needed to configure VMs in numerous cloud provider environments to connect the environments to an SDWAN. The SDWAN edge VM is provided as an image in each of the relevant clouds and can be given an identity and all required configuration via cloud-init without needing to log into the VM once online. Which configuration management and/or automation tooling is needed for this solution? A. Ansible B. Ansible and Terraform C. NSO D. Terraform E. Ansible and NSO Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7 Which two techniques protect against injection attacks? (Choose two.) A. input validation B. trim whitespace C. limit text areas to 255 characters D. string escaping of user free text and data entry E. only use dropdown, checkbox, and radio button fields Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the code onto the snippet to update a SSID in Meraki using the Dashboard API. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Refer to the exhibit. a developer created the code, but it fails to execute. Which code snippet helps to identify the issue?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which RFC5988 (Web Linking) relation type is used in the Link header to control pagination in APIs? A. rel=”index” B. rel=”page” C. rel=”next” D. rel=”section” Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. Which two functions are performed by the load balancer when it handles traffic originating from the Internet destined to an application hosted on the file server farm? (Choose two.) A. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected server. B. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected server. C. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected server. D. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected server. E. Terminate the TLS over the SCTP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected server. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12 An organization manages a large cloud-deployed application that employs a microservices architecture across multiple data centers. Reports have received about application slowness. The container orchestration logs show that faults have been raised in a variety of containers that caused them to fail and then spin up brand new instances. Which two actions can improve the design of the application to identify the faults? (Choose two.) A. Automatically pull out the container that fails the most over a time period. B. Implement a tagging methodology that follows the application execution from service to service. C. Add logging on exception and provide immediate notification. D. Do a write to the datastore every time there is an application failure. E. Implement an SNMP logging system with alerts in case a network link is slow. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 13 DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order of operation on the right for a successful OAuth2 three-legged authorization code grant flow. Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1 Which two statements about PCIe are true? (Choose two.) A. The PCIe link is built around dedicated unidirectional couples of serial, point-to-point connections known as lanes. B. You can install a PCI Express x8 adapter into an x4 slot. C. The PCIe standard is a bus-based system in which all the devices share the same bidirectional, 32-bit or 64-bit, parallel signal path. D. The PCIe 1.0 standard doubles the transfer rate compared to PCIe 2.0. E. A link that is composed of four lanes is called an x4 link. Correct Answer: AE
Refer to the exhibit. Which two faults can occur if the System Health LED is in a steady amber state? (Choose two.) A. At least one DIMM is faulty. B. Major fault with CPU C. Major fault with the system board D. CPU mismatch E. Major fault with memory DIMM Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3 Which two statements about Cisco UCS 6454 Fabric Interconnect are true? (Choose two.) A. 1-RU 10/25/40/100/200/400 Gigabit Ethernet, FCoE, and Fibre Channel switch offers up to 32 ports. B. It hosts and runs Cisco Integrated Management Controller (CIMC). C. All Ethernet ports can support FCoE. D. Provides the management and communication backbone for the Cisco UCS 5108 Server Chassis and Cisco UCS BSeries Blade Servers only. E. Provides both the LAN and SAN connectivity for all servers within its domain. Correct Answer: CE Reference: click here
QUESTION 4 Which three steps do you perform to troubleshoot when a rack server powers on with no video? (Choose three.) A. Check that the front I/O dongle is properly seated. B. Check the front I/O cable connection to the motherboard. C. Check for memory subsystem failure. D. Verify the power source to equipment. E. Reseat the DIMMs, CPU, and PCI cards. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5 Which transceiver can support 400 Gigabit Ethernet? A. QSFP-DD B. QSFP+ C. QSFP28 D. SFP-DD Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 6 Which tool does a network administrator not need when installing hardware? A. cable tester B. wrench set C. cable wraps D. needle-nose pliers E. PCMCIA memory F. soldering iron with grounded tip Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 7 Which type of connection across the network does a SAN allow for multiple servers to access an unlimited amount of storage devices? A. any-to-many B. many-to-any C. any-to-any D. any-to-one E. one-to-any F. one-to-one Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server? A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects? A. KVM cable B. console cable C. Ethernet cable D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.) A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable. B. It supports unified ports. C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor. D. It has one expansion slot. E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 Which three statements about powering down a Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server to perform maintenance or replacement are true? (Choose three.) A. Standby power mode: Power is supplied only to the service processor and the cooling fans, and it is safe to power off the server from this mode. B. Power status LED. Green indicates that the server is in main power mode and can be safely powered off. C. Graceful shutdown: Press and release the power button. The operating system performs a graceful shutdown, and the server goes to standby mode, which is indicated by an amber power status LED. D. Disconnect the power cords from the power supplies in your server to completely power off the server. E. Only an emergency shutdown can be performed using the power button on the server front panel. F. The Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server has only one power mode. Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 12 Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch? A. first-generation supervisor module B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2) C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E) D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which two blade servers support GPUs? (Choose two.) A. UCS B260 M4 B. UCS B200 M4 C. UCS B420 M4 D. UCS B480 M5 E. UCS B200 M5 Correct Answer: DE Reference: click here
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Vendor: Microsoft Certifications: Fundamentals Exam Code: MS-900 Exam Name: Microsoft 365 Fundamentals Updated: Nov 10, 2020 Q&As: 186
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QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT An organization has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to implement multi-factor authentication. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 A company deploys Microsoft Azure AD. You run the Identity Secure Score report. The report displays five security items. Which three security items on the report have the most impact on the score? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Enable policy to block legacy authentication. B. Enable user risk policy. C. Require multi-factor authentication for all users. D. Delete/block accounts not used in the last 30 days. E. Do not expire passwords. Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 5 DRAG DROP You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. The company plans to upgrade client operating systems to Windows 10. You need to explain the concepts of Windows as a Service (WaaS) to the management team. Match each term to its definition. To answer, drag the appropriate terms from the column on the left to its definitions on the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
QUESTION 6 You need to ensure that all users in your tenant have access to the earliest release of updates in Microsoft 365. You set the organizational release preference to Standard release. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct. A. Targeted release for the entire organization B. No change is needed C. Targeted release for select users D. First release Correct Answer: A The standard release is the default setting. It implements updates on final release rather than early release. The first release is now called a Targeted release. The targeted release is the early release of updates for early feedback. You can choose to have individuals or the entire organization receive updates early. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/release-options-in-office-365?view=o365-worldwide
QUESTION 7 You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You need to ensure that users receive a warning message if they select links in emails that might be unsafe. What should you do? A. Use Windows PowerShell to install the latest antimalware engine updates B. Enable Microsoft Office 365 Advanced Threat Protection C. Use the Microsoft Exchange Admin Center to configure a new spam-filter policy D. Use the Microsoft Exchange Admin Center to create a new antimalware policy Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/atp-safe-links
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP You are implementing cloud services. Match each scenario to its service. To answer, drag the appropriate scenario from the column on the left to its cloud service on the right. Each scenario may be used only once. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You need to identify available cloud security features. Match each feature to the correct description. To answer, drag the appropriate feature from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each feature may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 12 DRAG DROP Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to implement security policies to ensure that sensitive data is protected. Which tools should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct scenarios. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 A company uses Microsoft 365. Employees report that their searches are failing in Microsoft Outlook. You need to determine the reason the searches are failing. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. View the mailboxes list in the Exchange admin center. B. View the Exchange Online advisories in the Service health dashboard. C. View the email activity in the usage reports. D. Submit a service request in Support Assistant. Correct Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1 An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented? A. switch#lldp port-description B. switch(config)#lldp port-description C. switch(config-line}#lldp port-description D. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails? A. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary. B. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table. C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance that the primary route so it is used as a backup. D. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance that the primary route so it is used as a backup Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred? A. A network device has restarted. B. A debug operation is running. C. A routing instance has flapped. D. An ARP inspection has failed. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which option best describes an API? A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other. B. an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications; C. a stateless client-server model D. request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption? A. ISATAP B. GRE over iPsec C. iPsec over ISATAP D. GRE Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement? A. enable AAA override B. enable RX-SOP C. enable DTIM D. enable Band Select Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface,if packets from an unknown Source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. The security violation counter dose not increment B. The port LED turns off C. The interface is error-disabled D. A syslog message is generated E. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8 Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two) A. asychronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9 Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching? A. WSA B. Firepower C. ASA D. FireSIGHT Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols? A. dual algorithm B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID? A. 10.10.1.10 B. 10.10.10.20 C. 172.16.15.10 D. 192.168.0.1 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 What are the two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.) A. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections B. The glass core component is encased in a cladding C. The data can pass through the cladding D. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber E. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 13 What software-defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information? A. data plane B. control plane C. policy plane D. management plane Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 What is a benefit of using VRRPv3 as compared to VRRPv2? A. VRRPv3 supports IPv4 and IPv6 B. VRRPv3 supports authentication C. VRRPv3 supports preemption D. VRRPv3 supports stateful switchover Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 When a network is designed using IS-IS protocol, which two circuit types are supported? (Choose two.) A. nonbroadcast multiaccess B. multiaccess C. point-to-multipoint D. nonbroadcast E. point-to-point Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3 Which two steps can be taken to improve convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.) A. Use Bidirectional Forwarding Detection B. Merge all the areas into one backbone area C. Tune OSPF parameters D. Make all non-backbone areas stub areas E. Span the same IP network across multiple areas. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4 Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay? A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay B. primary, backup, and load-balanced C. prefix, TLOC, and service D. Internet, MPLS, and backup Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 An enterprise customer has these requirements: 1. end-to-end QoS for the business-critical applications and VoIP services based on CoS marking. 2. flexibility to offer services such as IPv6 and multicast without any reliance on the service provider. 3. support for full-mesh connectivity at Layer 2. Which WAN connectivity option meets these requirements? A. VPWS B. MPLS VPN C. DMVPN D. VPLS Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which common issue causes intermittent DMVPN tunnel flaps? A. a routing neighbor reachability issue B. a suboptimal routing table C. interface bandwidth congestion D. that the GRE tunnel to hub router is not encrypted Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A network solution is being designed for a company that connects to multiple Internet service providers. Which Cisco proprietary BGP path attribute will influence outbound traffic flow? A. Local Preference B. MED C. Weight D. AS Path E. Community Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which design consideration should be observed when EIGRP is configured on Data Center switches? A. Perform manual summarization on all Layer 3 interfaces to minimize the size of the routing table. B. Prevent unnecessary EIGRP neighborships from forming across switch virtual interfaces. C. Lower EIGRP hello and hold timers to their minimum settings to ensure rapid route reconvergence. D. Configure multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to segment Data Center services and applications. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A customer is discussing QoS requirements with a network consultant. The customer has specified that endto- end path verification is a requirement. Which QoS solution meets this requirement? A. IntServ model with RSVP to support the traffic flows B. DiffServ model with PHB to support the traffic flows C. marking traffic at the access layer with DSCP to support the traffic flows D. marking traffic at the access layer with CoS to support the traffic flows Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 What is an advantage of designing an out-of-band network management solution? A. In the event of a production network outage, network devices can still be managed. B. There is no separation between the production network and the management network. C. In the event of a production network outage, it can be used as a backup network path. D. It is less expensive than an in-band management solution Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which feature is required for graceful restart to recover from a processor failure? A. Cisco Express Forwarding B. Virtual Switch System C. Stateful Switchover D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which two BGP features will result in successful route exchanges between eBGP neighbors sharing the same AS number? (Choose two.) A. advertise-best-external B. bestpath as-path ignore C. client-to-client reflection D. as-override E. allow-as-in Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13 A customer with an IPv4 only network topology wants to enable IPv6 connectivity while preserving the IPv4 topology services. The customer plans to migrate IPv4 services to the IPv6 topology, then decommission the IPv4 topology. Which topology supports these requirements? A. dual stack B. 6VPE C. 6to4 D. NAT64 Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 You have an on-premises network that contains 100 servers. You need to recommend a solution that provides additional resources to your users. The solution must minimize capital and operational expenditure costs. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a complete migration to the public cloud B. an additional data center C. a private cloud D. a hybrid cloud Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 5 Which two types of customers are eligible to use Azure Government to develop a cloud solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. a Canadian government contractor B. a European government contractor C. a United States government entity D. a United States government contractor E. a European government entity Correct Answer: CD References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/intro-to-azure-government/2-what-is-azure-government
QUESTION 6 You have an on-premises application that sends email notifications automatically based on a rule. You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You need to recommend a serverless computing solution for the application. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a web app B. a server image in Azure Marketplace C. a logic app D. an API app Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have an Azure virtual network named VNET1 in a resource group named RG1. You assign an Azure policy specifying that virtual networks are not an allowed resource type in RG1. VNET1 is deleted automatically. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. is moved automatically to another resource group C. continues to function normally D. is now a read-only object Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview
QUESTION 9 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 10 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Resource groups provide organizations with the ability to manage the compliance of Azure resources across multiple subscriptions. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. No change is needed B. Management groups C. Azure policies D. Azure App Service plans Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 12 You plan to deploy a critical line-of-business application to Azure. The application will run on an Azure virtual machine. You need to recommend a deployment solution for the application. The solution must provide a guaranteed availability of 99.99 percent. What is the minimum number of virtual machines and the minimum number of availability zones you should recommend for the deployment? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 A team of developers at your company plans to deploy, and then remove, 50 customized virtual machines each week. Thirty of the virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and 20 of the virtual machines run Ubuntu Linux. You need to recommend which Azure service will minimize the administrative effort required to deploy and remove the virtual machines. What should you recommend? A. Azure Reserved Virtual Machines (VM) Instances B. Azure virtual machine scale sets C. Azure DevTest Labs D. Microsoft Managed Desktop Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Your organization needs to resolve DNS entries stored in an Amazon Route 53 private zone “awscloud:internal” from the corporate network. An AWS Direct Connect connection with a private virtual interface is configured to provide access to a VPC with the CIDR block 192.168.0.0/16. A DNS Resolver (BIND) is configured on an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instance with the IP address 192.168.10.5 within the VPC. The DNS Resolver has standard root server hints configured and conditional forwarding for “awscloud.internal” to the IP address 192.168.0.2. From your PC on the corporate network, you query the DNS server at 192.168.10.5 for www.amazon.com. The query is successful and returns the appropriate response. When you query for “server.awscloud.internal”, the query times out. You receive no response. How should you enable successful queries for “server.awscloud.internal”? A. Attach an internet gateway to the VPC and create a default route. B. Configure the VPC settings for enableDnsHostnames and enableDnsSupport as True C. Relocate the BIND DNS Resolver to the corporate network. D. Update the security group for the EC2 instance at 192.168.10.5 to allow UDP Port 53 outbound. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A multinational organization has applications deployed in three different AWS regions. These applications must securely communicate with each other by VPN. According to the organization\\’s security team, the VPN must meet the following requirements: AES 128-bit encryption SHA-1 hashing User access via SSL VPN PFS using DH Group 2 Ability to maintain/rotate keys and passwords Certificate-based authentication Which solution should you recommend so that the organization meets the requirements? A. AWS hardware VPN between the virtual private gateway and customer gateway B. A third-party VPN solution deployed from AWS Marketplace C. A private MPLS solution from an international carrier D. AWS hardware VPN between the virtual private gateways in each region Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Your hybrid networking environment consists of two application VPCs, a shared services VPC, and your corporate network. The corporate network is connected to the shared services VPC via an IPsec VPN with dynamic (BGP) routing enabled. The applications require access to a common authentication service in the shared services VPC. You need to enable native network access from the corporate network to both application VPCs. Which step should you take to meet the requirements? A. Use VPC peering to peer the application VPCs with the shared services VPC, and enable associated routing in the shared services VPC via the corporate VPN. B. Configure an IPsec VPN between the virtual private gateway in each application VPC to the virtual private gateway in the shared services VPC. C. Configure additional IPsec VPNs for each application VPC back to the corporate network, and enable VPC peering to the shared services VPC. D. Enable CloudHub functionality to route traffic between the three VPCs and the corporate network using dynamic BGP routing. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You currently use a single security group assigned to all nodes in a clustered NoSQL database. Only your cluster members in one region must be able to connect to each other. This security group uses a self-referencing rule using the cluster security group\\’s group-id to make it easier to add or remove nodes from the cluster. You need to make this database comply with out-of-region disaster recovery requirements and ensure that the network traffic between the nodes is encrypted when travelling between regions. How should you enable secure cluster communication while deploying additional cluster members in another AWS region? A. Create an IPsec VPN between AWS regions, use private IP addresses to route traffic, and create cluster security group rules that reference each other\\’s security group-id in each region. B. Create an IPsec VPN between AWS regions, use private IP addresses to route traffic, and create cluster security group CIDR-based rules that correspond with the VPC CIDR in the other region. C. Use public IP addresses and TLS to securely communicate between cluster nodes in each AWS region, and create cluster security group CIDR-based rules that correspond with the VPC CIDR in the other region. D. Use public IP addresses and TLS to securely communicate between cluster nodes in each AWS region, and create cluster security group rules that reference each other\\’s security group-id in each region. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Your company decides to use Amazon S3 to augment its on-premises data store. Instead of using the company\\’s highly controlled, on-premises Internet gateway, a Direct Connect connection is ordered to provide high bandwidth, low latency access to S3. Since the company does not own a publically routable IPv4 address block, a request was made to AWS for an AWS-owned address for a Public Virtual Interface (VIF). The security team is calling this new connection a “backdoor”, and you have been asked to clarify the risk to the company. Which concern from the security team is valid and should be addressed? A. AWS advertises its aggregate routes to the Internet allowing anyone on the Internet to reach the router. B. Direct Connect customers with a Public VIF in the same region could directly reach the router. C. EC2 instances in the same region with access to the Internet could directly reach the router. D. The S3 service could reach the router through a pre-configured VPC Endpoint. Correct Answer: A
Latest Exam Practice Questions – AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner
QUESTION 1 When is it beneficial for a company to use a Spot Instance? A. When there is flexibility in when an application needs to run. B. When there are mission-critical workloads. C. When dedicated capacity is needed. D. When an instance should not be stopped. Correct Answer: A The key to understanding spot instances is to look at the way that cloud service providers such as Amazon Web Services (AWS) operate. Cloud service providers invest in hardware resources and then release those resources (often on a per-hour basis) to subscribers. One of the problems with this business model, however, is that at any given time, there are likely to be compute resources that are not being utilized. These resources represent hardware capacity that AWS has paid for but are sitting idle, and not making AWS any money at the moment. Rather than allowing these computing resources to go to waste, AWS offers them at a substantially discounted rate, with the understanding that if someone needs those resources for running a normal EC2 instance, that instance will take priority over spot instances that are using the hardware resources at a discounted rate. In fact, spot instances will be stopped if the resources are needed elsewhere. Reference: https://awsinsider.net/articles/2017/09/25/aws-spot-instances-primer.aspx
QUESTION 3 What is a benefit of loose coupling as a principle of cloud architecture design? A. It facilitates low-latency request handling. B. It allows applications to have dependent workflows. C. It prevents cascading failures between different components. D. It allows companies to focus on their physical data center operations. Correct Answer: C IT systems should ideally be designed in a way that reduces inter-dependencies. Your components need to be loosely coupled to avoid changes or failure in one of the components from affecting others. Your infrastructure also needs to have well defined interfaces that allow the various components to interact with each other only through specific, technology-agnostic interfaces. Modifying any underlying operations without affecting other components should be made possible. Reference: https://www.botmetric.com/blog/aws-cloud-architecture-design-principles/
QUESTION 4 How does AWS MOST effectively reduce computing costs for a growing start-up company? A. It provides on-demand resources for peak usage. B. It automates the provisioning of individual developer environments. C. It automates customer relationship management. D. It implements a fixed monthly computing budget. Correct Answer: A You can continue to optimize your spend and keep your development costs low by making sure you revisit your architecture often, to adjust to your startup growth. Manage your cost further by leveraging different options such as S3 CloudFront for caching and offloading to reduce cost of EC2 computing, as well as Elastic Load Balancing which prepares you for massive scale, high reliability and uninterrupted growth. Another way to keep costs down is to use AWS Identity and Access Management solutions (IAM) to manage governance of your cost drivers effectively and by the right teams. Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/startups/lean/
QUESTION 5 A company is considering migrating its applications to AWS. The company wants to compare the cost of running the workload on-premises to running the equivalent workload on the AWS platform. Which tool can be used to perform this comparison? A. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator B. AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator C. AWS Billing and Cost Management console D. Cost Explorer Correct Answer: B TCO calculator compare the cost of running your applications in an on-premises or colocation environment to AWS. Reference: https://awstcocalculator.com
The AWS Certified Developer – Associate examination is intended for individuals who perform a development role and have one or more years of hands-on experience developing and maintaining an AWS-based application.
AWS-CERTIFIED-DEVELOPER-ASSOCIATE Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 An application deployed on AWS Elastic Beanstalk experiences increased error rates during deployments of new application versions, resulting in service degradation for users. The Development team believes that this is because of the reduction in capacity during the deployment steps. The team would like to change the deployment policy configuration of the environment to an option that maintains full capacity during deployment while using the existing instances. Which deployment policy will meet these requirements while using the existing instances? A. All at once B. Rolling C. Rolling with additional batch D. Immutable Correct Answer: D Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/developer/version-2-of-the-aws-elastic-beanstalk-windows-server-platform/
QUESTION 2 An application that runs on an Amazon EC2 instance needs to access and make API calls to multiple AWS services. What is the MOST secure way to provide access to the AWS services with MINIMAL management overhead? A. Use AWS KMS to store and retrieve credentials. B. Use EC2 instance profiles. C. Use AWS root user to make requests to the application. D. Store and retrieve credentials from AWS CodeCommit. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A web application is designed to allow new users to create accounts using their email addresses. The application will store attributes for each user, and is expecting millions of user to sign up. What should the Developer implement to achieve the design goals? A. Amazon Cognito user pools B. AWS Mobile Hub user data storage C. Amazon Cognito Sync D. AWS Mobile Hub cloud logic Correct Answer: A Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/cognito/
QUESTION 4 According to best practice, how should access keys be managed in AWS? (Choose two.) A. Use the same access key in all applications for consistency. B. Delete all access keys for the account root user. C. Leave unused access keys in the account for tracking purposes. D. Embed and encrypt access keys in code for continuous deployment. E. Use Amazon IAM roles instead of access keys where possible. Correct Answer: BE Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/general/latest/gr/aws-access-keys-best-practices.html#iam-user-access-keys
QUESTION 5 The development team is working on an API that will be served from Amazon API gateway. The API will be served from three environments: development, test, and production. The API Gateway is configured to use 237 GB of cache in all three stages. Which is the MOST cost-efficient deployment strategy? A. Create a single API Gateway with all three stages. B. Create three API Gateways, one for each stage in a single AWS account. C. Create an API Gateway in three separate AWS accounts. D. Enable the cache for development and test environments only when needed. Correct Answer: D
AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional Exam Questions Answers
QUESTION 1 You need to create a Route53 record automatically in CloudFormation when not running in production during all launches of a Template. How should you implement this? A. Use a Parameter for environment, and add a Condition on the Route53 Resource in the template to create the record only when environment is not production. B. Create two templates, one with the Route53 record value and one with a null value for the record. Use the one without it when deploying to production. C. Use a Parameter for environment, and add a Condition on the Route53 Resource in the template to create the record with a null string when environment is production. D. Create two templates, one with the Route53 record and one without it. Use the one without it when deploying to production. Correct Answer: A The best way to do this is with one template, and a Condition on the resource. Route53 does not allow null strings for records. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCloudFormation/latest/UserGuide/conditions-section-structure.html
QUESTION 2 A company is using several AWS CloudFormation templates for deploying infrastructure as code. In most of the deployments, the company uses Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling groups. A DevOps Engineer needs to update the AMIs for the Auto Scaling group in the template if newer AMIs are available. How can these requirements be met? A. Manage the AMI mappings in the CloudFormation template. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events for detecting new AMIs and updating the mapping in the template. Reference the map in the launch configuration resource block. B. Use conditions in the AWS CloudFormation template to check if new AMIs are available and return the AMI ID. Reference the returned AMI ID in the launch configuration resource block. C. Use an AWS Lambda-backed custom resource in the template to fetch the AMI IDs. Reference the returned AMI ID in the launch configuration resource block. D. Launch an Amazon EC2 m4 small instance and run a script on it to check for new AMIs. If new AMIs are available, the script should update the launch configuration resource block with the new AMI ID. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which deployment method, when using AWS Auto Scaling Groups and Auto Scaling Launch Configurations, enables the shortest time to live for individual servers? A. Pre-baking AMIs with all code and configuration on deploys. B. Using a Dockerfile bootstrap on instance launch. C. Using UserData bootstrapping scripts. D. Using AWS EC2 Run Commands to dynamically SSH into fleets. Correct Answer: A Note that the bootstrapping process can be slower if you have a complex application or multiple applications to install. Managing a fleet of applications with several build tools and dependencies can be a challenging task during rollouts. Furthermore, your deployment service should be designed to do faster rollouts to take advantage of Auto Scaling. Prebaking is a process of embedding a significant portion of your application artifacts within your base AMI. During the deployment process you can customize application installations by using EC2 instance artifacts such as instance tags, instance metadata, and Auto Scaling groups. Reference: https://d0.awsstatic.com/whitepapers/overview-of-deployment-options-on-aws.pdf
QUESTION 4 A retail company has adopted AWS OpsWorks for managing its deployments. In the last three months: the company has discovered that some production instances have been restarting without reason. Upon inspection of the AWS CloudTrail logs, a DevOps Engineer determined that those instances were restarted by OpsWorks. The Engineer now wants automated email notifications whenever OpsWorks restarts an instance when the instance is deemed unhealthy or unable to communicate with the service endpoint. How can the Engineer meet this requirement? A. Create a Chef recipe to place a cron to run a custom script within the Amazon EC2 instances that sends an email to the team by using Amazon SES if the OpsWorks agent detects an instance failure. B. Create an Amazon SNS topic and create a subscription for this topic that contains the destination email address. Create an Amazon CloudWatch rule: specify aws . opsworks as a source and specify auto-healing in the initiated_by details. Use the SNS topic as a target. C. Create an Amazon SNS topic and create a subscription for this topic that contains the destination email address. Create an Amazon CloudWatch rule specify aws. opsworks as a source and specify instance-replacement in the initiated_by details. Use the SNS topic as a target. D. Create a subscription for this topic that contains the email address. Enable instance restart notifications within the OpsWorks layer and indicate the destination email address for the notification. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which of the following cannot be used in Amazon EC2 to control who has access to specific Amazon EC2 instances? A. Security Groups B. IAM System C. SSH keys D. Windows passwords Correct Answer: B http://blogs.aws.amazon.com/security/post/Tx29HCT3ABL7LP3/Resource-level-Permissions-for- EC2-ControllingManagement-Access-on-Specific-Ins
QUESTION 3 A Solutions Architect is designing a new architecture that will use an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group. Which of the following factors determine the health check grace period? (Select TWO.) A. How frequently the Auto Scaling group scales up or down. B. How many Amazon CloudWatch alarms are configured for status checks. C. How much of the application code is embedded in the AMI. D. How long it takes for the Auto Scaling group to detect a failure. E. How long the bootstrap script takes to run. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4 A customer has established an AWS Direct Connect connection to AWS. The link is up and routes are being advertised from the customer\\’s end, however the customer is unable to connect from EC2 instances inside its VPC to servers residing in its datacenter. Which of the following options provide a viable solution to remedy this situation? (Choose two.) A. Add a route to the route table with an iPsec VPN connection as the target. B. Enable route propagation to the virtual pinnate gateway (VGW). C. Enable route propagation to the customer gateway (CGW). D. Modify the route table of all Instances using the \\’route\\’ command. E. Modify the Instances VPC subnet route table by adding a route back to the customer\\’s on-premises environment. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5 A website keeps a record of user actions using a globally unique identifier (GIUD) retrieved from Amazon Aurora in place of the user name within the audit record. Security protocols state that the GUID content must not leave the company\\’s Amazon VPC. As the web traffic has increased, the number of web servers and Aurora read replicas has also increased to keep up with the user record reads for the GUID. What should be done to reduce the number of read replicas required while improving performance? A. Keep the user name and GUID in memory on the web server instance so that the association can be remade on demand. Remove the record after 30 minutes. B. Deploy a Amazon ElastiCache for Redis server into the infrastructure and store the user name and GUID there. Retrieve GUID from ElastiCache when required. C. Encrypt the GUID using Base64 and store it in the user\\’s session cookie. Decrypt the GUID when an audit record is needed. D. Change the GUID to an MD5 hash of the user name, so that the value can be calculated on demand without referring to the database. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/elasticache/redis/faqs/
Practice Questions: AWS-SOLUTION- ARCHITECT-PROFESSIONAL Exam
QUESTION 1 You want to establish redundant VPN connections and customer gateways on your network by setting up a second VPN connection. Which of the following will ensure that this functions correctly? A. The customer gateway IP address for the second VPN connection must be publicly accessible. B. The virtual gateway IP address for the second VPN connection must be publicly accessible. C. The customer gateway IP address for the second VPN connection must use dynamic routes. D. The customer gateway IP address for the second VPN connection must be privately accessible and be the same public IP address that you are using for the first VPN connection. Correct Answer: A To establish redundant VPN connections and customer gateways on your network, you would need to set up a second VPN connection. However, you must ensure that the customer gateway IP address for the second VPN connection is publicly accessible. http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/VPC_VPN.html
QUESTION 2 A company is creating an account strategy so that they can begin using AWS. The Security team will provide each team with the permissions they need to follow the principle or least privileged access. Teams would like to keep their resources isolated from other groups, and the Finance team would like each team\\’s resource usage separated for billing purposes. Which account creation process meets these requirements and allows for changes? A. Create a new AWS Organizations account. Create groups in Active Directory and assign them to roles in AWS to grant federated access. Require each team to tag their resources, and separate bills based on tags. Control access to resources through IAM granting the minimally required privilege. B. Create individual accounts for each team. Assign the security account as the master account, and enable consolidated billing for all other accounts. Create a cross-account role for security to manage accounts, and send logs to a bucket in the security account. C. Create a new AWS account, and use AWS Service Catalog to provide teams with the required resources. Implement a third-party billing solution to provide the Finance team with the resource use for each team based on tagging. Isolate resources using IAM to avoid account sprawl. Security will control and monitor logs and permissions. D. Create a master account for billing using Organizations, and create each team\\’s account from that master account. Create a security account for logs and cross-account access. Apply service control policies on each account, and grant the Security team cross-account access to all accounts. Security will create IAM policies for each account to maintain least privilege access. Correct Answer: B By creating individual IAM users for people accessing your account, you can give each IAM user a unique set of security credentials. You can also grant different permissions to each IAM user. If necessary, you can change or revoke an IAM user\\’s permissions anytime. (If you give out your root user credentials, it can be difficult to revoke them, and it is impossible to restrict their permissions.) Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/best-practices.html
QUESTION 3 You are responsible for a web application that consists of an Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) load balancer in front of an Auto Scaling group of Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances. For a recent deployment of a new version of the application, a new Amazon Machine Image (AMI) was created, and the Auto Scaling group was updated with a new launch configuration that refers to this new AMI. During the deployment, you received complaints from users that the website was responding with errors. All instances passed the ELB health checks. What should you do in order to avoid errors for future deployments? (Choose 2) A. Add an Elastic Load Balancing health check to the Auto Scaling group. Set a short period for the health checks to operate as soon as possible in order to prevent premature registration of the instance to the load balancer. B. Enable EC2 instance CloudWatch alerts to change the launch configuration\\’s AMI to the previous one. Gradually terminate instances that are using the new AMI. C. Set the Elastic Load Balancing health check configuration to target a part of the application that fully tests application health and returns an error if the tests fail. D. Create a new launch configuration that refers to the new AMI, and associate it with the group. Double the size of the group, wait for the new instances to become healthy, and reduce back to the original size. If new instances do not become healthy, associate the previous launch configuration. E. Increase the Elastic Load Balancing Unhealthy Threshold to a higher value to prevent an unhealthy instance from going into service behind the load balancer. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4 If no explicit deny is found while applying IAM\\’s Policy Evaluation Logic, the enforcement code looks for any ______ instructions that would apply to the request. A. “cancel” B. “suspend” C. “allow” D. “valid” Correct Answer: C If an explicit deny is not found among the applicable policies for a specific request, IAM\\’s Policy Evaluation Logic checks for any “allow” instructions to check if the request can be successfully completed. http://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/AccessPolicyLanguage_EvaluationLogic.html
QUESTION 5 The Solutions Architect manages a serverless application that consists of multiple API gateways, AWS Lambda functions, Amazon S3 buckets, and Amazon DynamoDB tables. Customers say that a few application components slow while loading dynamic images, and some are timing out with the “504 Gateway Timeout” error. While troubleshooting the scenario, the Solutions Architect confirms that DynamoDB monitoring metrics are at acceptable levels. Which of the following steps would be optimal for debugging these application issues? (Choose two.) A. Parse HTTP logs in Amazon API Gateway for HTTP errors to determine the root cause of the errors. B. Parse Amazon CloudWatch Logs to determine processing times for requested images at specified intervals. C. Parse VPC Flow Logs to determine if there is packet loss between the Lambda function and S3. D. Parse AWS X-Ray traces and analyze HTTP methods to determine the root cause of the HTTP errors. E. Parse S3 access logs to determine if objects being accessed are from specific IP addresses to narrow the scope to geographic latency issues. Correct Answer: AE
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AWS-SYSOPS Exam Latest practice questions
QUESTION 1 A user has launched an EBS backed EC2 instance. What will be the difference while performing the restart or stop/start options on that instance? A. For restart it does not charge for an extra hour, while every stop/start it will be charged as a separate hour B. Every restart is charged by AWS as a separate hour, while multiple start/stop actions during a single hour will be counted as a single hour C. For every restart or start/stop it will be charged as a separate hour D. For restart it charges extra only once, while for every stop/start it will be charged as a separate hour Correct Answer: A For an EC2 instance launched with an EBS backed AMI, each time the instance state is changed from stop to start/ running, AWS charges a full instance hour, even if these transitions happen multiple times within a single hour. Anyway, rebooting an instance AWS does not charge a new instance billing hour.
QUESTION 2 Which services allow the customer to retain run administrative privileges or the underlying EC2 instances? (Choose two.) A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk B. Amazon Elastic Map Reduce C. Elastic Load Balancing D. Amazon Relational Database Service E. Amazon Elastic Cache Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 The SysOps Administrator must integrate an existing on-premises asymmetrical key management system into an AWS services platform. How can the Administrator meet this requirement? A. Implement AWS KMS and integrate with the existing on-premises asymmetrical key management system B. Implement AWS CloudHSM and integrate it with the existing key management infrastructure C. Deploy an Amazon EC2 instance and choose an AMI from an AWS partner in the AWS Marketplace D. Create a master key in AWS KMS, and export that key to the existing on-premises asymmetrical key management system Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A user has created a queue named “myqueue” with SQS. There are four messages published to queue which are not received by the consumer yet. If the user tries to delete the queue, what will happen? A. A user can never delete a queue manually. AWS deletes it after 30 days of inactivity on queue B. It will delete the queue C. It will initiate the delete but wait for four days before deleting until all messages are deleted automatically. D. It will ask user to delete the messages first Correct Answer: B SQS allows the user to move data between distributed components of applications so they can perform different tasks without losing messages or requiring each component to be always available. The user can delete a queue at any time, whether it is empty or not. It is important to note that queues retain messages for a set period of time. By default, a queue retains messages for four days.
QUESTION 5 A user is displaying the CPU utilization, and Network in and Network out CloudWatch metrics data of a single instance on the same graph. The graph uses one Y-axis for CPU utilization and Network in and another Y-axis for Network out. Since Network in is too high, the CPU utilization data is not visible clearly on graph to the user. How can the data be viewed better on the same graph? A. It is not possible to show multiple metrics with the different units on the same graph B. Add a third Y-axis with the console to show all the data in proportion C. Change the axis of Network by using the Switch command from the graph D. Change the units of CPU utilization so it can be shown in proportion with Network Correct Answer: C Amazon CloudWatch provides the functionality to graph the metric data generated either by the AWS services or the custom metric to make it easier for the user to analyze. It is possible to show the multiple metrics with different units on the same graph. If the graph is not plotted properly due to a difference in the unit data over two metrics, the user can change the Y-axis of one of the graph by selecting that graph and clicking on the Switch option.
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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam 220-1002 Practice Test 
QUESTION 1 A user reports malware activity on an isolated workstation used for testing. It is running an end-of-life OS, and a USB drive is the only method used to transfer files. After removing the malware and replacing the USB drive with a brand new one, the technician gives the approval to use the equipment. The next day the user reports the same malware activity is present after powering on the system. Which of the following did the technician forget to do to prevent reinfection? A. Connect to the network and update the OS with the latest security patches B. Scan and clean the USB device used to transfer data from the equipment C. Disable System restore and remove all restore points from the system D. Update the local antivirus and set it to scan automatically every evening Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 A technician is troubleshooting a printer issue on a Windows computer and wants to disable the printer to test a theory. Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this? A. Devices and Printers B. Sync Center C. Device Manger D. Power Options Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Users notify the help desk of an email that was just received. The email came from the help desk\\’s email address and asked the users to click on an embedded link. This email is BEST described as: A. phishing. B. zombie. C. whaling. D. spoofing. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 A user states that they are having a problem with their word processor on their laptop. Whenever they attempt to type letters with their right hand, numbers and symbols show up instead. Which of the following would address this issue? A. Switch to a standardized font B. Restore regional settings to default C. Toggle the function + num lock combination D. Connect a full sized external keyboard Correct Answer: C Explanation: http://forum.notebookreview.com/windows-os-software/43702-holding-fn-key-toggle-numlock.html
QUESTION 5 Which of the following built-in accounts was removed in Windows 10? A. Power User B. Administrator C. Guest D. Standard User Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A company wishes to secure entry and provide a reviewwable entry log to specific offices within its building. Which of the following would be the lowest-cost solution to BEST meet the company\\’s needs? A. Key fob B. Biometric locks C. Entry control roster D. Cipher locks Correct Answer: B New Question, pending the Answer.
QUESTION 7 A user recently installed an application. Upon the next reboot, the system is displaying various errors relating to the system files and certain actions e.g. right-clicking no longer works. The user does not have time to reimage the computer, nor do they wish to remove and reinstall the application. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. Open up the command prompt and type SFC /SCANNOW B. Open Task Manager and stop all running SERVICES processes C. Open up MSCONFIG and remove the application from the start-up tab D. Open a command prompt and type REGSVR32 SYSMAIN.DLL ?U Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which of the following regular maintenance tasks for a workgroup of Windows PCs is MOST likely to be performed on a nightly basis? A. CHKDSK B. Patch installation C. Defragmentation D. Backups Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 A technician is tasked with resolving a display issue with a laptop. The technician has determined that the laptop\\’s display needs to be replaced. Which of the following is the NEXT step the technician should perform? A. Identify the problem that caused the display to fail. B. Establish a theory of the probable cause. C. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures. D. Establish an action plan to resolve the problem. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A user brings in an older CRT monitor and reports there are issues with the colors and bands of discoloration.Which of the following should be done to correct the issue? A. Replace the power cord B. Reformat C. Increase the refresh rate D. Degauss Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 A technician must remove data from the human resources computers. The technician plans to reuse the drives in the computers. Which of the following data destruction methods should the technician perform to ensure the data is removed completely? A. Degaussing B. Standard format C. Overwrite D. Low-level format Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 A customer purchased a 3TB HDD to use with a Windows 7 PC and wants to have letter “J” assigned only to the drive. Which of the following types of partitioning should be performed to give the customer full use of the 3 TB drive? A. GPT B. Dynamic C. Basic D. Extended Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A company executive reports receiving numerous bounce-back messages to an inbox. When a technician investigates, it appears the executive did not send any of the messages that triggered the bounce-back replies. Which of the following is MOST likely to have occurred\\’ A. Social engineering B. Man-in-the-mid die attack C. Spear pNshing D. Email hijacking E. Logic bomb Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 2 While filling out the After Actions Report, an Incident Response Team noted that improved log monitoring could help detect future breaches. What are two examples of how an organization can improve log monitoring to help detect future breaches? (Choose two.) A. Periodically log into the ATP manager and review only the Dashboard. B. Implement IT Analytics to create more flexible reporting. C. Dedicate an administrator to monitor new events as they flow into the ATP manager. D. Set email notifications in the ATP manager to message the Security team when a new incident is occurring. E. Implement Syslog to aggregate information from other systems, including ATP, and review log data in a single console. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 4 An organization has five (5) shops with a few endpoints and a large warehouse where 98% of all computers are located. The shops are connected to the warehouse using leased lines and access internet through the warehouse network. How should the organization deploy the network scanners to observe all inbound and outbound traffic based on Symantec best practices for Inline mode? A. Deploy a virtual network scanner at each shop B. Deploy a virtual network scanner at the warehouse and a virtual network scanner at each shop C. Deploy a physical network scanner at each shop D. Deploy a physical network scanner at the warehouse gateway Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 An Incident Responder launches a search from ATP for a file hash. The search returns the results immediately. The responder reviews the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) command status and does NOT see an indicators of compromise (IOC) search command. How is it possible that the search returned results? A. The search runs and returns results in ATP and then displays them in SEPM. B. This is only an endpoint search. C. This is a database search; a command is NOT sent to SEPM for this type of search. D. The browser cached result from a previous search with the same criteria. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 An Incident Responder has noticed that for the last month, the same endpoints have been involved with malicious traffic every few days. The network team also identified a large amount of bandwidth being used over P2P protocol. Which two steps should the Incident Responder take to restrict the endpoints while maintaining normal use of the systems? (Choose two.) A. Report the users to their manager for unauthorized usage of company resources B. Blacklist the domains and IP associated with the malicious traffic C. Isolate the endpoints D. Blacklist the endpoints E. Find and blacklist the P2P client application Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7 Why is it important for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to the ATP file store or create an image of the infected system during the Recovery phase? A. To have a copy of the file policy enforcement B. To test the effectiveness of the current assigned policy settings in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) C. To create custom IPS signatures D. To document and preserve any pieces of evidence associated with the incident Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 An ATP Administrator set up ATP: Network in TAP mode and has placed URLs on the blacklist. What will happen when a user attempts to access one of the blacklisted URLs? A. Access to the website is blocked by the network scanner but an event is NOT generated B. Access to the website is blocked by the network scanner and a network event is generated C. Access to the website is allowed by the network scanner but blocked by ATP: Endpoint and an endpoint event is generated D. Access to the website is allowed by the network scanner but a network event is generated Correct Answer: D Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.HOWTO125951.html
QUESTION 9 Which attribute is required when configuring the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) Log Collector? A. SEPM embedded database name B. SEPM embedded database type C. SEPM embedded database version D. SEPM embedded database password Correct Answer: D Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO125960.html
QUESTION 10 An Incident Responder wants to run a database search that will list all client named starting with SYM. Which syntax should the responder use? A. hostname like “SYM” B. hostname “SYM” C. hostname “SYM*” D. hostname like “SYM*” Correct Answer: A Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.HOWTO124805.html
QUESTION 11 An Incident Responder needs to remediate a group of endpoints but also wants to copy a potentially suspicious file to the ATP file store. In which scenario should the Incident Responder copy a suspicious file to the ATP file store? A. The responder needs to analyze with Cynic B. The responder needs to isolate it from the network C. The responder needs to write firewall rules D. The responder needs to add the file to a whitelist Correct Answer: A Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.HOWTO128772.html
250-101 : Symantec small Business security 231 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-215 : Administration of Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 102 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-222 : Implementation of High Availability Solutions for UNIX using Veritas Cluster Server 4.0 145 Q&As Updated: May 04, 2020 250-223 : Data Protection Administration for UNIX using NBU 5.0 208 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-240 : Administration of Storage Foundation 4.0 for UNIX 133 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-250 : Administration of Storage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX 199 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-251 : Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0) 208 Q&As Updated: Apr 28, 2020 250-252 : Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix 109 Q&As Updated: May 04, 2020 250-253 : Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix 108 Q&As Updated: May 04, 2020
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