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Exam 70-695: Deploying Windows Desktops and Enterprise Applications: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-695.aspx

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for IT professionals who deploy, manage, and maintain PCs, devices, and applications across midsized to
large enterprise organizations. Typically, this audience comes from a desktop support background. A significant portion of
this audience uses or intends to use System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager to manage and deploy Windows devices and applications.

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QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy a Windows 8.1 Enterprise image that contains a volume license version of Microsoft Office 2013. The image will be captured from a reference computer. Office is activated by using the Key Management Service (KMS).
On the reference computer, you install Office 2013 and you verify that all of the Office applications start properly.
You need to ensure that when the image is deployed, users are not prompted for activation when they first start an Office application.
What is the best action to perform before you capture the image? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Rearm Office 2013 on the reference computer.
B. Run setup.exe and specify the /modify switch.
C. Modify the Config.xml file.
D. Reinstall Office 2013 on the reference computer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your company deploys Microsoft Office Professional 2013 and installs all of the Office 2013 Professional applications to 100 computers.
You need to automate the removal of Access 2013 from some of the computers.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Modify the Config.xml file, and then run msiexec.exe.
B. Create an MSP file, and then run setup.exe.
C. Modify the Config.xml file, and then run setup.exe.
D. Create an MSP file, and then run msiexec.exe
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You use the Key Management Service (KMS) to activate Microsoft Office 2013.
You need to trigger the activation of Office 2013 on a client computer. Which tool should you use?
A. Ospp.vbs
B. Onlinesetup.cmd
C. Slui.exe
D. Wuauclt.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You plan to sequence a 32-bit application named App1. App1 is compatible with Windows 7 and Windows 8.1. You have the following operating systems deployed to the network:
64-bit version of Windows 8.1 Enterprise
64-bit version of Windows 8.1 Pro
32-bit version of Windows 8.1 Pro
64-bit version of Windows 7 Enterprise
32-bit version of Windows 7 Pro
64-bit version of Windows 7 Pro
You need to identify the minimum number of Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) packages that must be created to ensure that App1 can run on all of the client computers on the network.
How many App-V packages should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains computers that have Microsoft Office 2007 and Office 2010 installed.
You plan to upgrade all of the versions of Office to Office 365 ProPlus.
You need to recommend a solution to identify which Office add-ins are in use.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Install the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to-Run on all of the computers. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) on one of the computers.
B. Install the Telemetry Processor on all of the computers. Install the Telemetry Agent on one of the computers.
C. Install the Telemetry Agent on all of the computers. Install the Telemetry Processor on one of the computers.
D. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) on all of the computers. Install the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to -Run on one of the computers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
You plan to deploy a Click-to-Run installation of Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus.
On a client computer named Computer1, you download the installation files by using the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to-Run.
You need to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to all of the client computers as a Microsoft Application Visualization (App-V) package by using Configuration Manager.
What is the best action to perform first? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Configuration Manager, import a package.
B. Run appv_sequencer_setup.exe.
C. Run setup.exe.
D. From Configuration Manager, import an application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named WDS1. WDS1 is used to deploy an image of Windows 8.1 Pro named Image1 to the computers in a classroom. The computers are redeployed every day. WDS1 only contains
one install image.
Every morning on each computer, a technician must press F12, and then choose Image1.
You need to automate the process of deploying Image1 to the computers. Image1 must be deployed automatically to the computers when they are turned on.
Which two actions should you perform on WDS1? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure a Multicast Transmission.
B. Configure the Network settings.
C. Configure the Boot settings.
D. Configure the PXE Response settings.
E. Configure the Client settings.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager site that is used to deploy images, software, and Microsoft updates.
You have an image named Image1.
You need to apply multiple Microsoft updates to Image1.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From the Configuration Manager console, create a new automatic deployment rule.B. From the properties of Image1 in Configuration Manager, modify the servicing options.
C. From the Configuration Manager console, run the Schedule Updates action for Image1.
D. Apply Image1 to a client computer, and then apply the Microsoft updates.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In Sources.wim, you have a Windows 8.1 image named Image1.
You have an application named App1.exe. App1.exe is a self-contained application that does not require installation.
You mount Image1.
You need to add Appl.exe to Image1.
What should you run first?
A. Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage and the Path and FolderPath parameters
B. imagex.exe and the Append and Config parameters
C. dism.exe and the Image and AddPackage parameters
D. Copy-Item and the Path and Destination parameters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your company uses the computer builds shown in the following table

You plan to deploy Windows 8.1 Enterprise to the different computer builds by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
You need to recommend how many images must be created.
How many images is the best recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have an image named Image1 that contains an installation of Windows 8.1 Pro.
Image1 will be deployed by using Windows Deployments Services (WDS).
You need to ensure that all of the Internet Information Services components are installed when Image1 is deployed.
Which tool should you run before you deploy the image?
A. Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature
B. Add-WindowsPackage
C. imagex.exe
D. wdsutil.exe
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com that has two sites named Site1 and Site2.
The contoso.com domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) is installed on both of the servers. Server1 is located in Site1 and Server2 is located in
Site2.
You perform the following actions on Server1:
Import an operating system.
Import drivers.
Create a task sequence.
You copy the deployment share from Server1 to Server2 and you open the share on Server2 as MDTShare2.
You discover that clients that connect to MDTShare2 are deployed from Server1.
You need to ensure that the clients that connect to MDTShare2 are deployed from Server2.
What should you modify on Server2?
A. Bootstrap.ini
B. Customsettings.ini
C. The Rules properties of MDTShare2
D. the General properties of MDTShare2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You maintain a base operating system image for your company. The image does not contain hardware-specific drivers. The image is distributed to the desktop support team, which is responsible for maintaining a driver repository on a file
share named Share1.
You have a client computer named Client1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise. Client1 will be used as the reference computer for the next version of the base image.
You plan to generalize Client1, capture an image of Client1, and then distribute the image to the desktop support team.
You need to configure a Sysprep answer file to ensure that the next time the image starts, device drivers from Share1 are added to the local driver repository. The solution must ensure that the drivers are added without entering the Out-of-
Box-Experience (OOBE) phase.
Which configuration pass in the unattended file should you configure?
A. specialize
B. auditSystem
C. generalize
D. windowsPE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
You have a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
You install the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) on Computer1.
You sign in to Computer1 as a local user named User1. You insert the Windows 8.1 installation media into the DVD drive on Computer1.
You need to use Windows ADK to create an answer file for the deployment of Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
What should you do first?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run Copy-Item
B. From Windows System Image Manager, click Import Package(s).C. From Windows System Image Manager, click Create Configuration Set…
D. From Deployment and Imaging Tools Environment run dism.exe and specify the Mount-Wim parameter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
You have a custom install image of Windows 8.1 Enterprise named Image1. The image is in an image group named ImageGroup1 and is the only image in the group.
You need to ensure that only users who are the members of a security group named Admins can deploy Image1 by using PXE.
What should you use?
A. the Deny-WdsClient cmdlet and the RequestID parameter
B. the Set-WdsClient cmdlet and the Group parameter
C. the Set-WdslnstallImage cmdlet and the UserFilter parameter
D. the Approve-WdsClient cmdlet and the RequestID parameter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You have a 32-bit application named App1.
Your company uses the following device types:
Windows tablets
Android tablets
iOS tablets
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that App1 can be used on all devices.
What should you recommend?
A. an app package (.appx)
B. a RemoteApp program
C. a Windows Installer (MSI) package
D. A Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) application
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
You plan to add a server named Server1 as a distribution point. Server1 will be used only by client computers on the internal network that run Windows 8.1 Enterprise. The Windows Deployment Services server role will NOT be installed on
Server1.
You need to identify which firewall port on Server1 must be open to ensure that Configuration Manager clients can download application packages from Server1.
Which TCP port should you identify?
A. 53
B. 8080
C. 443
D. 636
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and a 64-bit UEFI-based computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
Server1 is a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
From the installation media of the 32-bit version of Windows 8.1, you add a boot image named Image1 to WDS.
You need to use WDS to capture an image of Computer1.
What should you do first on Server1?
A. Add an install image from the Windows 8.1 installation media.
B. Run wdsutil.exe and specify the New-CaptureImage and the Architecture:x64 parameters.
C. Add a boot image from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media.
D. Run wdsutil.exe and specify the New-CaptureImage and the Architecture:x86 parameters.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
You add a boot image and an install image to Server1.
You need to create a capture image.
Which tool should you use?
A. Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM)
B. the Windows PowerShell module for WDS
C. Oscdimg
D. the Windows Deployment Services console
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named Server1.
You have an image of Windows 8.1 Enterprise that you deploy by using WDS.
You need to add a video card driver to the image.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-WDSDriverPackage
B. Add-WindowsPackage
C. Import-WdsDriverPackage
D. Add-Windows Driver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
DRAG DROP
You are planning the deployment of new applications for users in several departments.
You have three user groups. The groups are shown in the following table

You need to identify the appropriate application delivery method for each department.
Which application delivery methods should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate application delivery methods to the correct departments. Each method may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split
bar between panes or scroll to view content.

QUESTION 22
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 is a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
You add an x86 capture image named Image1 and an x64 capture image named Image2 to WDS on Server1.
The network contains the client computers configured as shown in the following table.

You need to identify which capture image can be used on each computer.What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate images for each computer in the answer area.

 

QUESTION 23
DRAG DROP
You have a client computer that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise. The client computer has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You plan to capture images from Windows PE by running the New-Windowslmage cmdlet.
You mount a custom image of Windows PE.
You need to identify which three components must be added to the image.
Which three components should you add in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate components from the list of components to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

QUESTION 24
HOTSPOT
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager that is integrated with the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2013.
You plan to replace an existing client computer that runs Windows 7 with a new computer and to install Windows 8.1 Enterprise on the new computer. The user data stored on the Windows 7 computer must be copied to the new computer.
You need to identify how many objects must be created from the Configuration Manager console to automate the replacement of the Windows 7 computer. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
How many objects of each type should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate number of objects of each type in the answer area.

 

QUESTION 25
HOTSPOT
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office is located in Montreal. The branch office is located in Seattle. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The WAN link is congested during business hours.
Each office has a high-bandwidth connection to the Internet.
The network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The relevant servers in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to use Server2 to perform an operating system deployment. The solution must minimize the amount of bandwidth used on the WAN link during business hours.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

QUESTION 26
HOTSPOT
You create the following configuration file that will be used to migrate content by using the User State Migration Tool (USMT):

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement.

QUESTION 27
HOTSPOT
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have the users shown in the following table.

All computers are joined to the domain. You are evaluating the implementation of the Key Management Service (KMS) and Active Directory-Based Activation (ADBA). You need to identity which activation method can be used for each user type. What should you identify for each user type? To answer, select the appropriate activation methods for each user type in the answer area

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
You create a share on Server1 named Share1.On Computer1, you need to perform a Click-to-Run installation of Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus from Share1.
You extract the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to-Run on Server1.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order

QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table

All contoso.com clients are allowed access to cloud-based distribution points. You need to deploy a cloud-based distribution point. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

QUESTION 30
HOTSPOT
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
From a network share, you plan to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to the client computers in a branch office by using the Office Deployment Tool. The share is located at \\Server1\Office.
Some of the users in the branch office are consultants who often work for extended periods in customer locations. All other users in the branch office work in the customer service department.
During testing, you discover that Internet traffic spikes excessively during the installation of updates.
From the Office Deployment Tool, you create a configuration file named Config1.xml for the consultants and you create a configuration file named Config2.xml for the customer service department.
You need to ensure that the Office applications on all of the client computers are updated regularly. The solution must minimize the amount of Internet traffic, whenever possible.
Which configuration file should you modify and which configuration element should you add to the configuration file? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

QUESTION 31
HOTSPOT
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. The deployment contains the operating system images and the operating system installers shown in the following table.

You plan to create task sequences for the deployment of each operating system image and operating system installer.
You need to identify which boot images can be used to deploy the Windows 8.1 Enterprise operating system images and the operating system installers by using a task sequence.
Which boot images should you identify? To answer, select the valid boot images for each operating system image and operating system installer in the answer area.

QUESTION 32
HOTSPOT
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager. Configuration Manager is integrated with the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2013.
You create an MDT Zero Touch Installation (ZTI) client task sequence named TS1 and deploy TS1 to a test computer named Client1. TS1 continually fails on Client1.
You need to add a task to TS1 to allow you to troubleshoot TS1 from Client1 interactively.
Which type of task should you add to TS1 and which ZTI component should the task reference? To answer, select the appropriate task type and ZTI component in the answer area.

QUESTION 33
DRAG DROP
You deploy the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) to a server named Server1.
You plan to deploy Windows 8.1 Enterprise to client computers by using MDT. You also plan to deploy two applications named App1 and App2.
You need to ensure that all of the client computers install App1 as part of their deployment of Windows 8.1 Enterprise. The solution must provide users with the ability to choose to install App2.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order

QUESTION 34
DRAG DROP
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named WDS1 that is used to deploy operating system images. You have a WIM file that contains an image of Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
You need to ensure that you can use WDS1 to deploy native-boot VHDs of Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence on WDS1? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order

QUESTION 35
DRAG DROP
Your company purchases 32-bit and 64-bit BIOS-based computers.
You plan to deploy Windows 8.1 Enterprise to the new computers by using a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named WDS1.
The company has several departments. The requirements of each department are described in the following table.You need to identity the minimum number of images that must be added to WDS1 to meet the department requirements.
How many boot images and install images should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate numbers to the correct images. Each number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.

 

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Exam 70-686: Windows 7, Enterprise Desktop Administrator: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-686.aspx

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have a minimum of three years of experience installing, configuring, and administering clients in
a Windows networked environment and also have experience deploying operating systems and applications. Candidates should be
familiar with the client administration capabilities of Windows Server and with management tools such as the System Center suite of products.

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QUESTION 1
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest with a single domain.
Domain controllers are located in the companys offices in New York and Boston.
You deploy a group policy at the domain level that includes security filtering.
You discover that Group Policy object (GPO) settings are being applied to computers in the New York office, but not to computers in the Boston office.
You suspect there might be replication problems with the policies. What should you do?
A. Run a Group Policy Results report against computers in the Boston office.
B. Run a Group Policy Modeling report against computers in the Boston office.
C. Use the GpoTool.exe command-line tool.
D. Use the RepAdmin.exe command-line tool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Your companys network has client computers that run Windows 7.
A software vendor releases version 2 of an application that your company uses.
Your company currently uses version 1. Version 1 and version 2 are not compatible.
You plan to deploy version 2 of the application.
You have the following requirements:
You need to plan a software deployment process that meets the requirements. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Deploy version 2 of the application by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V).
B. Deploy version 2 of the application by using Microsoft Enterprise Desktop (MED-V).
C. Deploy version 2 of the application as a Remote Desktop Services RemoteApp.
D. Deploy version 2 of the application by using a Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager package.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Microsoft Application Virtualization (MS App-V) platform allows applications to be deployed in real-time to any client from a virtual application server. It removes the need for local installation of the applications. Instead, only the App-v client
needs to be installed on the client machines. All application data is permanently stored on the virtual application server. Whichever software is needed is either streamed or locally cached from the application server on demand and run locally.
The App-V stack sandboxes the execution environment so that the application does not make changes to the client itself (OS File System and/or Registry). App-V applications are also sandboxed from each other, so that different versions of
the same application can be run under
App-V concurrently.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microsoft_App-V

QUESTION 3
A company uses Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2010 to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The company is replacing existing computers with new 64-bit computers.
You have the following requirements:
You need to create an image that meets these requirements.
What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Import the Windows 7 Enterprise x86 source files.
B. From the MDT deployment workbench, select the Custom Task Sequence template.
C. Use a reference computer and capture a WIM image.
D. From the MDT deployment workbench, select the Sysprep and Capture template.
E. Import the necessary OEM drivers.
F. Import the 32-bit version of Office 2010.
G. Import the 64-bit version of Office 2010.
H. Import the Windows 7 Enterprise x64 source files.
Correct Answer: ABEF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
hints:
The specialized hardware is compatible with Windows 7 but only 32-bit drivers are available from the manufacturer.

QUESTION 4
Your company’s network includes a main office and several branch offices. The branch offices are connected to the main office by high-latency links. All client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise, and all servers run Windows Server 2008
R2. Servers are located in each of the branch offices.
Client computers in the branch offices frequently access a specific group of files on a file server named Server1. These access requests consume significant amounts of bandwidth and reduce the speed of higher-priority traffic.
You need to reduce the bandwidth that is consumed by requests for frequently accessed files.
What should you do?
A. Configure BranchCache in Hosted Cache mode on client computers in the main office and the branch offices.
B. Configure BranchCache in Distributed Cache mode on client computers in the main office and the branch offices.
C. Enable the BranchCache For Network Files role service on Server1. Configure BranchCache in Distributed Cache mode on a server computer in only the branch offices.
D. Enable the BranchCache For Network Files role service on Server1. Configure BranchCache in Hosted Cache mode on a server computer in only the branch offices.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
BranchCacheTM is designed to reduce WAN link utilization and improve application responsiveness for branch office workers who access content from servers in remote locations. Branch office client computers use a locally maintained
cache of data to reduce traffic over a WAN link. The cache can be distributed across client computers (Distributed Cache mode) or can be housed on a server in the branch (Hosted Cache mode).
Distributed Cache mode
If client computers are configured to use Distributed Cache mode, the cached content is distributed among client computers on the branch office network. No infrastructure or services are required in the branch office beyond client computers
running Windows 7.
Hosted Cache mode
In hosted cache mode, cached content is maintained on a computer running Windows Server 2008 R2 on the branch office network.
hints: no server are located in the branch office. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd637832(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 5
A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named SERVER01 has the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) role installed. SERVER02 is running DHCP services. You prestage computer objects in Active Directory. You plan to use WDS to deploy
Windows 7 to the prestaged computers. When you try to deploy an image by using PXE, the process fails. You need to ensure that SERVER01 responds to prestaged client computers only. From WDS, what should you do? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. On the DHCP tab, select Configure DHCP option 60 to indicate that this server is also a PXE server.
B. On the Advanced tab, select Authorize this Windows Deployment Services server in DHCP.
C. On the PXE Response tab, select Respond to all client computers (known and unknown).
D. On the DHCP tab, select Do not listen on Port 67.
E. On the PXE Response tab, select Respond only to known client computers.
F. On the Advanced tab, select Do not authorize this Windows Deployment Services server in DHCP.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
hints: prestaged computers = known client computers

QUESTION 6
Your company has a custom Web application that uses a self-signed SSL certificate. The company has an internal certification authority (CA) and uses autoenrollment. When external users attempt to start the Web application, Internet
Explorer displays an error message that recommends closing the Web page rather than continuing to the application. You need to ensure that Internet Explorer does not display the error message. What should you do?
A. Install the current certificate into the personal store on each client computer. Add the applications URL to the Trusted Sites zone in Internet Explorer.
B. Install the current certificate into the computer store on each client computer.
C. Purchase and install a commercial certificate on the CA server. Ensure that users trust the issuing CA.D. Issue a root certificate from the internal CA on the external users computers.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Your companys network is shown in the following diagram

There is a VPN between Branch Officebranch office B and the Core Networkcore network.
The company plans to deploy Windows 7 to all client computers.
You need to manage the deployment to ensure that client computers in branch office A and in branch office B can activate Windows.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Configure DNS so that client computers in branch office A use the Key Management Service (KMS) in the core network.
B. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in branch office B.
C. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in branch office A.
D. Configure DNS so that client computers in branch office B use the Key Management Service (KMS) in the core network.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You are deploying an App-V client application to the New York office.
You need to ensure that the application will be installed at a specific time.
What should you use to deploy the application?
A. ConfigMgr
B. a Group Policy object (GPO) with a software installation policy.
C. MED-V
D. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Your company has client computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise.
Each computer in the company is required to boot into a different Windows 7 application environment without compromising the main Windows 7 Enterprise installation.
You need to create a new Native Boot VHD that will host the alternate Windows 7 environments.
Which command should you use?
A. BCDEdit.exe
B. Bootcfg.exe
C. DiskPart.exe
D. BCDboot.exe
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.techexams.net/forums/windows-7-exams/66547-bcdedit-bcdboot- difference.html
BCDboot is a tool used to quickly set up a system partition, or to repair the boot environment located on the system partition. The system partition is set up by copying a small set of boot environment files from an installed Windows?image.
BCDboot also creates a Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store on the system partition with a new boot entry that enables you to boot to the installed Windows image. BCDEdit is a command-line tool for managing BCD stores. It can be used for
a variety of purposes, including creating new stores, modifying existing stores, adding boot menu parameters, and so on. BCDEdit serves essentially the same purpose as Bootcfg.exe on earlier versions of Windows, but with two major
improvements

QUESTION 10
Your company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and 1,000 Windows 7 computers. You are planning to deploy a custom application. You need to schedule the deployment to occur outside of business hours and
without user interaction.
What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Create a collection with the required computers and assign the software to the collection.
B. Create a software installation Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Assign the policy to the root of the Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.
D. Create a software deployment package by using System Center Configuration Manager 2007.
E. Create an unattend.xml file.
F. Create a silent install MSI file.
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
hints: without user interaction = silent install MSI file

QUESTION 11
A network consists of 1,000 laptop computers that run Windows XP. The computers do not have access to the corporate network.
You plan to migrate 200 of the computers immediately to Windows 7. The remainder will be migrated over the next several months.
You need to plan the most efficient method for activating all of the computers.
What should you do?
A. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent for the first 200 computers, and then use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Proxy for the remaining computers.
B. Use the Key Management Service (KMS) for all the computers.
C. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent for all the computers.
D. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Proxy for the first 200 computers, and then use the Key Management Service (KMS) for the remaining computers.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Key Management Service (KMS) requires a count of 25 or higher from the KMS host to activate itself.refer to http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee939272.aspx MAK:
If users install a MAK using the user interface (UI), the MAK client attempts to activate itself over the Internet one time. If the users install a MAK using the Slmgr.vbs script, the MAK client does not try to activate itself automatically. refer to
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff793438.aspx Hints:
The computers do not have access to the internet

QUESTION 12
Your company’s network is shown in the following diagram

Each office is connected to the Internet through a high-bandwidth connection. The branch offices are connected to the core network through low-bandwidth connections. Microsoft Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) must provide software updates for all offices. You need to design the WSUS infrastructure to minimize traffic over the low-bandwidth connections. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Deploy BranchCache on the WSUS server and client computers B. Configure WSUS to use updates that are stored locally C. Configure WSUS to use updates that are stored on Microsoft Update D. Deploy Quality of Service (QoS) on the WSUS server and client computers E. Deploy WSUS servers in the branch offices Correct Answer: CE Explanation Explanation/Reference: WSUS update from Microsoft update is faster then core network Deploy WSUS servers in each branch office in order to provide WSUS server for branch client. hints: 1. Each office is connected to the Internet through a high-bandwidth connection. 2. The branch offices are connected to the core network through low-bandwidth connections.

QUESTION 13
Your network is configured as shown in the following diagramYou are planning to deploy Windows 7. You have the following requirements: ?Use BitLocker on all computers in the isolated network. ?Provide DirectAccess on all portable computers. ?Use the Key Management Service (KMS) to activate all client computers. You need to plan a client computer licensing strategy that meets the requirements. What should you do? A. License 500 copies of Windows 7 Ultimate. B. License 500 copies of Windows 7 Enterprise. C. License 350 copies of Windows 7 Professional, license 150 copies of Windows 7 Ultimate, and purchase Software Assurance for the Windows 7 Professional licenses. D. License 350 copies of Windows 7 Enterprise, and license 150 copies of Windows 7 Ultimate. Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: hints: Direct Access only available for Ultimate and Enterprise only. Company should use Enterprise version

QUESTION 14
Your company has 1,000 client computers that run Windows 7. The company uses several custom line-of-business applications that are not compatible with Windows 7.
You need to distribute a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) virtual machine (VM) image that includes the custom applications to all Windows 7 client computers.
What should you do?
A. Mount the VM image from the MED-V workspace.
B. Deploy the VM image from the MED-V server.
C. Deploy the VM image by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
D. Deploy the VM image by using Windows Server Update Services (WSUS).
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Your company plans to upgrade all client computers to Windows 7.
The company uses a custom line-of-business application. The application contains sensitive data. The application will not run on Windows 7
You establish that Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) is the appropriate technology to allow your organization to continue to use the application.
You need to ensure that the virtual machine (VM) images that contain sensitive data can be used only when the user is connected to the MED-V server.
What should you do?
A. Using MED-V TrimTransfer technology, deploy the VM image over the network
B. In the MED-V console, configure the MED-V workspace to prevent offline operation
C. Use BitLocker Drive Encryption to encrypt the drive on which the VM image is stored
D. Using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager, deploy the VM image to an image store directory
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
The client computers in your network run either Windows XP or Windows 7. All client computers are in a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) organizational unit (OU) named MyClients.You install Windows Software Update Services (WSUS). You create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables automatic updates from the WSUS server, and you link the GPO to the MyClients OU. You place all client computers in a targeting
group named MyClients.
Testing reveals that a security update that is applicable to both Windows XP and Windows 7 causes a line-of-business application to fail on the Windows XP client computers.
You need to ensure that the application runs on the Windows XP client computers and that the Windows 7 client computers receive the security update.
What should you do?
A. Remove the Windows XP client computers from the MyClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the All Computers targeting group.
B. Remove the Windows 7 client computers from the MyClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the All Computers targeting group.
C. Create a targeting group named MyXPClients beneath the MyClients targeting group.
Move the Windows XP client computers to the MyXpClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the MyClients targeting group.
D. Remove the Windows 7 client computers from the MyClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the Unassigned Computers targeting group.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
All computers targeting group = assigned group and unassigned group. Unassigned computer targeting group = all computer which is not assign to any group

untitled hints: Windows 7 remove from MyClients = unassigned computer targeting group Windows XP = MyClients targeting group update will only done for unassigned computer targeting group

QUESTION 17
Your company uses Microsoft Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) to deploy software updates and service packs. Microsoft releases a security update for Windows 7. You have the following requirements: The security update must be
deployed by 5:00 P.M. on Friday. Computers that are off when the security update is deployed must install the security update as soon as they are turned on. You need to manage the software update process to meet the requirements. What
should you do?
A. Approve the security update for installation through the WSUS console with no deadline.
B. Approve the security update for download through the WSUS console with a deadline of Friday at 5:00 P.M.
C. Approve the security update for installation through the WSUS console with a deadline of Friday at 5:00 P.M.
D. Approve the security update for download through the WSUS console with no deadline.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Hints:
1. question mention at friday 5pm
2. question request install update in stead of download update

QUESTION 18
Your company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named contoso.com that uses Active DirectoryCintegrated DNS.
You deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) on a Windows 7 computer.
You need to ensure that Windows 7 client computers can locate the KMS host and perform activation.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Create and deploy a GPO firewall rule to allow RPC traffic through TCP port 1688 on the client computers.
B. Deploy a Windows Server 2008 KMS host.
C. Grant the KMS server the Full Control permission on the _vlmcs._tcp.contoso.com DNS record.
D. Grant the KMS server the Full Control permission on the _msdcs._tcp.contoso.com DNS zone.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee939272.aspx The KMS clients find the KMS host via a DNS SRV record (_vlmcs._tcp) and then automatically attempt to discover and use this service to activate themselves. When in the 30 day Out
of Box grace period, they will try to activate every 2 hours. Once activated, the KMS clients will attempt a renewal every 7days.
Listening on Port:
Communication with KMS is via anonymous RPC. 1688 is the default TCP port used by the clients to connect to the KMS host. Make sure this port is open between your KMS clients and the KMS host.

QUESTION 19
Your network contains 5 servers that have the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The servers host a Remote Desktop RemoteApp named App1.
You need to recommend a solution for App1 that meets the following requirements:
?Must ensure that users can connect to any Remote Desktop Session Host server
?Must ensure that users are automatically reconnected to disconnected sessions
What should you include in the recommendations?
A. Windows Virtual PC and Windows XP Mode
B. Remote Desktop Web Access
C. Remote Desktop Gateway
D. Windows Deployment Services
E. Remote Desktop Connection Broker
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Remote Desktop Connection Broker (RD Connection Broker), formerly Terminal Services Session Broker (TS Session Broker), is used to provide users with access to RemoteApp and Desktop Connection. RemoteApp and Desktop
Connection provides users a single, personalized, and aggregated view of RemoteApp programs, session-based desktops, and virtual desktops to users. RD Connection Broker supports load balancing and reconnection to existing sessions
on virtual desktops, Remote Desktop sessions, and RemoteApp programs accessed by using RemoteApp and Desktop Connection. RD Connection Broker also aggregates RemoteApp sources from multiple Remote Desktop Session Host
(RD Session Host) servers that may host different RemoteApp programs. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd560675(v=WS.10).aspx

QUESTION 20
Your company has two network segments. The core network segment is where centralized management is performed. The high-security network segment is an isolated network. A firewall between the core network segment and the high-
security network segment limits network communication between the segments.
These network segments are shown in the following diagram

Your company plans to deploy Windows 7 to all client computers.
You need to manage activation for client computers that are located in the high-security network segment.
What should you do?A. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in the core network segment.
B. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in the high-security network segment.
C. Install the Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) in the core network segment.
D. Install the Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT) in the high-security network segment.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Key Management Service (KMS) requires a count of 25 or higher from the KMS host to activate itself.
refer to http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee939272.aspx There is a firewall blocking, (VAMT) should setup at high-security network.

QUESTION 21
Your company has client computers that run Windows XP Professional.
You are planning to install Windows 7 Enterprise on the existing client computers.
You need to ensure that the user state can be viewed after it has been collected and saved.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Perform an offline migration by using Windows PE.
B. Use an uncompressed migration store.
C. Perform an offline migration by using Windows.old.
D. Use a hard-link migration store.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A company runs Windows Server 2008 R2 in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) environment. Windows 7 is installed on all the companys client computers.
You add a domain user account named User1 to the local Administrators group on a client computer named PC01. When User1 returns to the office, User1 does not have administrative access on PC01.
When you inspect PC01, you find that the local Administrators group does not contain the user account. You need to ensure that User1 is a member of the local Administrators group.
Which Group Policy setting should you select? To answer, select the appropriate Group Policy setting in the work area

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
You are designing a Windows 7 deployment image.
You plan to install Windows 7 Enterprise with a Multiple Activation Key (MAK).
You need to add the MAK to the configuration pass by using an answer file.
To which configuration pass should you add the MAK?

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
You are the desktop architect for an enterprise organization with computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise.
You need to create a customized WinPE image.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriateactions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order,) 

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
A company has client computers in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) environment. You deploy a new wireless access point (WAP). Third-party security software
controls access to the wireless network.
Users are able to connect to the wireless network and access the Internet but are unable to access the company’s file servers.
You need to enable users to connect to the file servers by using the wireless network.
Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
You use Microsoft Application Compatibility Manager to produce a report that lists a company’s applications and their compatibility status with Windows 7.
You need to add your ratings of the compatibility of the applications to the report.
Which Microsoft Application Compatibility Manager action should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
All client computers in a company run Windows 7 Enterprise. The company creates Windows PowerShell scripts to collect statistical data from client computers. A logon script is configured to run the PowerShell scripts during logon.
An error occurs when the scripts are run on client computers.
You need to ensure that all PowerShell scripts run correctly.
Which command should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate component from the list of components to the correct location or locations in the work area.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
A company runs Windows Server 2008 R2 in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) environment. Windows 7 is installed on all client computers.
Users discover that they cannot delete files that they have created and placed in their local folders.
You need to enable users to modify file permissions.
Which setting should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
A company’s server runs Windows 2008 R2 with Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). All client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise.
You need to automate the distribution of Windows security updates to all client computers by meeting the following requirements:
1) Point all client computers to the WSUS server.
2) Schedule updates to install at a specific time.
3) Run the updates immediately after Windows starts if the computer missed the originally scheduled updates.
You need to configure Group Policy to meet the requirements.
Which settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
You use Group Policy to configure Windows 7 Enterprise client computers.
You need to modify a Group Policy object (GPO) to specify a custom location for the temp folder.
Which setting should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
A company has client computers that run windows 7. A new corporate security policy states that all client computers in the legal department should allow only inbound and outbound network connections for which there is an existing firewall
rule.
You need to ensure that all client computers in the legal department are configured to follow the new security policy.
Which settings should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
You are the desktop architect for an enterprise organization with computers that run Windows 7.
You need to create a Group Policy object (GPO) to prevent Windows Explorer from starting until all logon scripts have finished.
Which setting should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
You are designing a Windows 7 image creation strategy for a multilingual deployment. You currently have an English language image of Windows 7.
The deployment must meet the following requirements:
You need to recommend an action plan that meets the deployment requirements.
Which two actions should be performed in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
Active Directory Domain Services (AD OS) is running on windows Server 2008 R2.
You decide to audit changes to AD DS.
Administrative users in San Diego add new users to the domain without approval. You configure the audit policy settings in the San Diego Policy Group Policy object (GPO) and set up auditing in object System Access Control Lists, YOU
verify that the GPO is being applied to the resources in the San Diego OUs, but auditing still does not work.
You need to select the GPO to ensure that users added by the San Diego administrative users are audited.
Which GPO should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
A company has a main office and two branch offices named Branch Site 1 and Branch Site 2. The main office has a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. Branch Site 2 also has a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. The branch
offices do not have direct access to the Internet.
Windows 7 Enterprise is installed on all client computers. A diagram of the network is shown in the exhibit.
Corporate policy dictates that all updates must be approved by the IT department before being deployed.
Using the hardware configuration shown in the exhibit, you need to design a Windows Update strategy to meet the following goals:
What should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate answer to the correct location or locations in the work area.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
A server runs Windows Server 2008 P2 with Remote Desktop Services (RDS).
You add an application to Remote Desktop RemoteApp.
You need to ensure that the application can be published by using Group Policy.
Which setting should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
You are designing a Windows 7 Enterprise custom image. You create an autounattend.xml file by using Windows System Image Manager (SIM). This file will be used when the image is deployed.
You are planning to install Windows 7 on a second hard disk in a computer. You configure the DiskID setting.
You need to select the configuration pass where you will add the DiskID setting.
Which option should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
A company has a server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 in an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) environment. The domain controllers were recently upgraded from Windows Server 2003. You are using Group Policy to deploy
applications to the client computers remotely. The computers reboot each night as part of routine maintenance.
You need to ensure that the application installs when the computer starts up.
Which Group Policy setting should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
All portable computers on a company’s wireless network run windows 7 Enterprise.
You need to ensure that users can connect only to the predefined SSID shown in the work area.
Which Group Policy object (GPO) settings should you select? To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the work area.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
You are managing data migration from an existing Windows 7 computer to a new Windows 7 computer. You need to migrate user and application data from the existing computer to the new computer.
Which command should you run on the existing and new computers? (To answer, drag the appropriate commands to the correct location in the work area.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
An enterprise organization has computers that run Windows 7. Users log on to the Contoso.com domain from their client computers.
A user is unable to log on to the domain. The user changed his password the previous night and was unable to log on this morning. After reviewing the event logs, you notice a large amount of NETLOGON errors.
You need to ensure that the user can log on to the domain.
Which command should you run? (To answer, drag the appropriate command and parameter from the list of commands and parameters to the correct location or locations in the work area.)

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
You are updating the corporate image to add drivers to support a new device.
You need to meet company requirements for updating images.
Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam 70-673: TS: Designing, Assessing, and Optimizing Software Asset Management (SAM): https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-673.aspx

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have three years of on-the-job experience in an IT environment. They are familiar with business processes
and audit procedures (for example, ITIL SAM-related standards and ISO/IEC 19770 standards that support the SAM life cycle, including
acquisition, inventory, discovery, deployment, reconciliation, maintenance, and retirement).

Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft MCTS 70-673 practice test free of charge (32Q&As)

QUESTION 1
How many years of experience do you have designing, assessing, and optimizing Software Asset
Management (SAM)?
A. I have not done this yet.
B. Less than 3 months
C. 3-6 months
D. More than 6 months but less than 1 year
E. 1-2 years
F. 2-3 years
G. 3 or more years
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Rate your level of proficiency with assessing SAM programs by using the SAM Optimization Model,
including defining scope, assessing SAM processes throughout an organization, assigning maturity levels
according to the 10 components of the SAM Optimization Model, and performing gap analysis between
current and desired maturity levels.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Rate your level of proficiency with performing software license reviews, including conducting inventories,
validating and managing license entitlement records, and reconciling software inventories and report
license compliance status.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Rate your level of proficiency with coordinating technologies, including managing data collection, data
interfaces between disparate data sources, and reporting.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Rate your level of proficiency with designing, implementing, and managing a SAM program, including
securing executive sponsorship and funding.A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Rate your level of proficiency with managing the Software Asset life cycle, including acquisition,
deployment, maintenance, and retirement.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Rate your level of proficiency with IT procurement, IT contract negotiations and management (i.e. software
licensing, terms and conditions), and IT operations (i.e. application package management, network
administration).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Rate your level of proficiency with Microsoft licensing models and product use right (PUR).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Rate your level of proficiency with audit procedures (i.e. ITIL SAM-related standards, ISO/IEC 19770
standards).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Rate your level of proficiency with Microsoft Operations Framework (MOF).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your customer has one office. All software and hardware purchasing is centralized. You need to define the
scope of a SAM program assessment for the customer.
Which information should you collect?
A. current license versions
B. install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities
C. list of people responsible for SAM sign-off
D. quantity of server licenses
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You collect the following information from a customer:
dolume license agreements
bardware and software inventory procedures
You need to define the scope of a SAM program assessment for the customer.
Which information should you use?
A. physical asset locations
B. preferred software vendor
C. number of contract employees
D. number of IT staff
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You plan to assess your customer’s Microsoft SQL Server deployment for license compliance. The
customer licenses SQL Server by using per-processor licenses.
You need to define the scope of the SAM assessment.
What should you do?
A. Gather all SQL Server Client Access Licenses (CALs).
B. Gather all Windows Server Client Access Licenses (CALs).
C. Identify infrastructure groups where SQL Server is installed.
D. Identify infrastructure groups where SQL Server is accessed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Your customer has one main office in Boston and three branch offices in London, New York, and Paris. All
purchasing, software deployment, and inventory is centralized in the New York office. Microsoft Office is
installed in only the Paris office. The main data center is in the London office. You plan to perform a SAM
program assessment of Office for the customer. You need to visit one of the offices to collect data for the
assessment.
Which office should you visit?
A. BostonB. London
C. New York
D. Paris
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You plan to perform a SAM optimization assessment for a customer. You need to identify the phase during
which roles, expectation, and responsibilities are assigned.
Which phase should you identify?
A. infrastructure analysis
B. optimization and planning
C. SAM discussions
D. workshop preparation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You design a SAM program for a customer.
You implement an asset management system.
You need to design a process to identify all owned software licenses. What should you integrate into the
asset management system?
A. an auto-discovery tool
B. a change management system
C. a human resources system
D. a procurement system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You need to design a SAM program that meets the following requirements:
xnables the reuse of desktop software licenses.
xnables the implementation of server virtualization technology. 稥nables a complete refresh of all desktop
and server hardware within the next six months.
What should you include in the program?
A. decentralized software decision making
B. decentralized software purchasing
C. network infrastructure mapping
D. software and hardware mapping
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You plan to implement a SAM program for a customer. You collect the following information:
xecutive sponsorship and budget approval
bardware inventory that includes 60 percent of all computers xicrosoft License Statement (MLS) that is
reconciled against license purchase records You need to identify the applications installed on all
networked computers.
What should you implement?
A. an application patch management tool
B. a SAM program dashboard
C. a software discovery tool
D. a software license tracking toolCorrect Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Your customer does not track any software licenses. You confirm that the customer is out of compliance
with several vendor agreements.
You need to implement a SAM program for the customer.
What should you do first?
A. Stop all software purchases.
B. Purchase and implement a SAM tool.
C. Convert product licenses to volume license agreements.
D. Present the benefits of the SAM program to the customer’s executives.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Your customer has a SAM program. The customer installs SAM tools that monitor approved software
installations.
You need to monitor whether the customer adheres to approved software installation policies.
What should you do?
A. Perform quarterly inventory verifications.
B. Perform quarterly license metering verifications.
C. Perform quarterly hardware inventory verifications.
D. Perform quarterly human resources audits for new employees.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Your software acquisition policy includes the following statements:
deceiving must be managed.
xurchasing must be centralized.
You need to improve the software acquisition policy.
Which process should you add to the policy?
A. Collect all historical purchasing information.
B. Collect all historical proof of licenses (POLs).
C. Purchase from any software vendor.
D. Purchase from only approved software vendors.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You manage a software asset lifecycle for a customer. The customer has centralized purchasing. You
discover that some employees purchase software by using their personal credit cards.
You need to control employee software purchases.
What should you do?
A. Monitor employee expense reports on a monthly basis.
B. Identify approved software vendors in the product catalog.
C. Identify reclaimed licenses from decommissioned hardware.
D. Monitor license recovery information based on software usage.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Your customer allows employees to purchase and install software on company computers. You need to
ensure that the customer can take advantage of volume licensing.
What should you do?A. Identify and purchase all software through approved software vendors.
B. Collect all hardware inventory information and then identify all approved hardware vendors.
C. Implement a software discovery tool and then generate a Microsoft Product License Advisor (MPLA)
report.
D. Request a Microsoft License Statement (MLS) and then generate a Microsoft Product License Advisor
(MPLA) report.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Your customer purchases Microsoft Office Project 2003 under a volume license agreement. The customer
does not have Microsoft Software Assurance.
The customer installs 200 copies of Project 2007.
You need to ensure that the customer is in compliance with software licensing. The solution must minimize
costs.
What should you do?
A. Purchase Microsoft Software Assurance.
B. Purchase 200 full packaged product (FPP) licenses for Microsoft Office Project 2007.
C. Purchase 200 full packaged product (FPP) licenses for Microsoft Office Standard 2007.
D. Purchase 200 Microsoft Office Project 2007 licenses through the customer’s volume licensing
agreement.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Your software inventory report identifies several installations of unapproved software on employee
computers.
You need to implement a process that prevents employees from installing software.
What should you include in the process?
A. Install a network monitoring tool.
B. Update the software and hardware inventory.
C. Request that an IT administrator modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs).
D. Generate a license advisor report and contact the Business Software Alliance (BSA).
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your customer uses Microsoft Office Excel to maintain an inventory of software and hardware assets. You
need to recommend a tool that generates daily reports on changes to the inventory of applications installed
on computers.
Which tool should you recommend?
A. a network monitoring tool
B. a procurement tool
C. the SAM ROI Calculator
D. a software asset inventory tool
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Your customer completes an internal audit. The audit concludes that the customer does not maintain
hardware and software inventories.
You need to implement a process that enables the customer to maintain hardware and software
inventories.
Which step should you include in the process?A. Gather install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities.
B. Collect cost savings information related to reusing software.
C. Purchase all software and hardware from an online auction site.
D. Collect hardware purchase history and generate a Microsoft Product License Advisor (MPLA) report.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Your customer has an Active Directory forest that contains a Microsoft System Center Configuration
Manager (CfgMgr) server.
Users have portable computers that are frequently disconnected from the network. The customer does not
have a change management system in place. The current hardware inventory is out-of-date. You need to
update the hardware inventory to meet the following requirements:
xnsure that all desktop and portable computers are included in the inventory. kinimize the amount of time
it takes to update the inventory.
What should you do?
A. Perform a network discovery scan.
B. Perform a manual count of all desktop computers.
C. Gather install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities.
D. Gather information from the Active Directory database, the CfgMgr database, and the purchasing
history.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Your customer’s network consists of one Active Directory forest. The network contains a Microsoft System
Center Configuration Manager (CfgMgr) server and a Microsoft System Center Operations Manager
(OpsMgr) server.
All computers are joined to the Active Directory domain and have both CfgMgr and OpsMgr clients
installed.
You plan to manage the software and hardware retirement process for the customer.
You need to identify all retired desktop computers.
What should you do?
A. Generate a CfgMgr report.
B. Generate an OpsMgr report.
C. Review the Active Directory Group Policy objects (GPOs).
D. Review the Active Directory domain controller event viewer logs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You manage the software and hardware retirement process for a customer. The customer does not have
Microsoft Software Assurance.
The customer plans to retire desktop computers that have the following characteristics:
l’ll hardware is more than three years old.
i’ll desktop computers have Windows preinstalled.
i’ll Microsoft Office licenses are purchased under a volume license agreement. You need to recommend a
solution for reusing licenses.
What should you recommend?
A. Reuse none of the licenses.
B. Reuse all licenses for Office.
C. Reuse all licenses for Windows.
D. Purchase Software Assurance and reuse all licenses.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
You manage all software licenses for a company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso licenses all Windows
desktop computers under an OEM licensing agreement and all Microsoft Office Professional licenses
under a volume licensing agreement.
Following an acquisition, Contoso plans to transfer all licenses to an unaffiliated company named Litware,
Inc.
You need to transfer all licenses from Contoso to Litware. Which two actions should you perform? (Each
correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Complete a transfer request form for all Office licenses.
B. Complete a transfer request form for all Windows licenses.
C. Transfer all desktop computers from Contoso to Litware.
D. Transfer all Certificate of Authenticity (COA) stickers from Contoso computers and to Litware
computers.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 32
Your customer has an office in New York.
The customer plans to donate 400 desktop computers to a local nonprofit organization. All computers have
Windows preinstalled.
You need to ensure that the customer can donate the computers and remain in compliance with all
applicable licensing agreements. The solution must provide as many hardware and software resources as
possible for the nonprofit organization.
What should you do?
A. Remove the operating system and Certificate of Authenticity (COA) from each computer. Transfer the
computers to the nonprofit organization.
B. Reinstall Windows by using the original media. Transfer the computers, media, Certificates of
Authenticity (COAs), and manuals to the nonprofit organization.
C. Purchase a Windows license for each computer under a volume licensing agreement. Transfer the
computer and the license to the nonprofit organization.
D. Remove the hard disks from all computers. Transfer the computers to the nonprofit organization and
recommend that they purchase a new Windows license for each computer under a full packaged
product (FPP) licensing agreement.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
What is an accurate statement about a hardware RAID implementation?
A. Uses a specialized hardware controller installed on a storage array
B. Uses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations
C. Requires a RAID controller and operating system to be compatible
D. Offers a low-cost solution for providing disk protection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is an accurate statement about a virtual desktop infrastructure?
A. Each user is provided a dedicated desktop VM with its own operating system and applications
B. Operating system and applications hosted on a client system are shared by multiple users
C. Each user has an individual desktop session on the remote compute system in which applications execute
D. Operating system and applications on the remote desktop are downloaded on the client for local execution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which type of digital data consists of textual data with inconsistent formats but can be formatted with the use of software
tools?
A. Quasi-structured data
B. Semi-structured data
C. Metadata
D. Unstructured data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution by retaining their legacy backup application. They are
concerned about the application servers\’ performance and a long backup window during backups.
Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended to the organization?
A. Post-process
B. Source-based global deduplication
C. Variable-length segment and source-based D. Fixed-length block and source-based
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is an accurate statement about a logical volume in a compute system?
A. Can span across multiple physical volumes
B. Can only be created from a single physical volume
C. Must be created across multiple volume groups
D. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an insecure network?
A. Secret-key cryptography
B. One-way hash function
C. Shared secret
D. OpenID control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
In an object-based storage system, data is divided into 9 data segments and 3 coding segments using the erasure
coding technique. What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by this
configuration?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations. The company
has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In addition, the company has less
critical applications such as backup and archive.
Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?
A. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications ona public cloud.
B. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on an
externally-hosted private cloud.
C. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on a
public cloud.
D. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on
an on-premise private cloud.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is an accurate statement about the Common Internet File System (CIFS) protocol?
A. Enables a CIFS server to maintain connection information regarding every connected client
B. Uses a Remote Procedure Call mechanism to provide access to the CIFS supported file systems
C. Contains an open variation of the stateless user datagram protocol that stores information about open files
D. Uses file system locking to enable users to simultaneously overwrite all metadata of a file system
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is a function of the NDMP server in an NDMP-based backup approach?
A. Reads the data from the storage device and sends the data to the backup device
B. Reads the data from the backup server and sends the data to the backup device
C. Instructs the NAS head to start the backup operation
D. Instructs the backup agent on the client to send the data to the backup device
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is a function of the FC-1 layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack?
A. Defines data encoding
B. Provides FC addressing
C. Defines the physical interface
D. Maps upper layer protocols to FC layers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the allocation of bandwidth to different network
traffic classes?
A. Enhanced transmission selection
B. Priority-based flow control
C. Congestion notification
D. Data center bridging exchange protocol
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels andquot;Xandquot; and andquot;Yandquot; represent in the
exhibit?
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B. X is an F_Port and Y is an E_Port
C. X is an F_Port and Y is an F_Port
D. X is an N_Port and Y is an N_Port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24 hours; Monday through Friday.
During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows:
Tuesday = 8 AM to 1 PM
Thursday = 5 PM to 10 PM
Friday = 5 AM to 10 AM What is the mean time between failures on component 3 for that week?
A. 5 hours
B. 35 hours
C. 40 hours
D. 51 hours
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
A. Captures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
B. Provides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
C. Runs as an independent copy from the parent VM
D. Provides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
In which stage of the business continuity planning lifecycle does an organization identify critical business processes and
assign recovery priorities?
A. Analyzing
B. Establishing objectives
C. Designing and developing
D. Implementing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS cluster when clients send data to the cluster?
A. Data is divided and stored on multiple nodes in parallel
B. Data is consolidated into a block and then stored on the NAS head
C. Data is evenly distributed to every file system in the cluster
D. NAS file system and cluster grow dynamically to store the data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal accessibility with support for object
and HDFS?
A. ECS Appliance
B. XtremIO
C. Data Domain
D. Centera
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Why is it important for organizations to maintain a copy of data at a remote site?
A. Ensure disaster recovery
B. Provide operational recovery
C. Ensure data archiving to meet regulatory requirements
D. Provide flexibility to use stub files for production operations
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and incremental back ups on the remaining days at
9:00
AM. However, at 10 PM on Friday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies.
How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?
A.
2
B.
4
C.
5
D.
6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
In an FC SAN environment, which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch
reboot?
A. Port locking
B. Port type locking
C. Port binding
D. Fabric binding
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures?
A. Vaulting
B. Mirroring
C. Cache tiering
D. Idle flushing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?
A. Balances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage systems
B. Enables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure
C. Improves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system
D. Reduces the overall storage system capacity requirements for organizations
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which elements are associated with an object in an object-based storage system?
A. Data, metadata, object ID, and attributes
B. LUN ID, data, metadata, and object ID
C. Metadata, object ID, attributes, and file path
D. Object ID, attributes, LUN ID, and file path
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What is an accurate statement about a data lake?
A. Stores data as an exact or near-exact copy of the source format
B. Supports query and analysis by classifying and organizing data before storing
C. Stores current and historical data in a structured format on object-based storage
D. Provides a single consistent view of data across an organization for report generation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
What is a benefit of a andquot;recovery-in-placeandquot; backup approach in a virtualized data center?
A. Provides instant recovery of a failed virtual machine
B. Reduces the recovery point objective
C. Eliminates redundant data during virtual machine backups
D. Eliminates the backup window
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What accurately describes link aggregation in a SAN?
A. Combines two or more parallel interswitch links into a single logical interswitch link
B. Aggregates the data transmission rate of all HBA and storage system port pairs
C. Consolidates compute-to-compute traffic and storage traffic into a single interswitch link
D. Replaces multiple parallel interswitch links by a single physical interswitch link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which LUN expansion technique provides both capacity expansion and performance improvement?
A. Striped metaLUN
B. Partitioned metaLUN
C. Virtual metaLUN
D. Concatenated metaLUN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What refers to an IT infrastructure\’s ability to function based on business expectations during its specified time ofoperations?
A. Information availability
B. Disaster recovery
C. Compliance adherence
D. Business agility
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which data structure enables two node ports to identify and manage a set of information units in a Fibre Channel (FC)
SAN?
A. Exchange
B. Sequence
C. Frame
D. Domain
Correct Answer: A

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
What default option does a newly created file system have when it is NFS exported?
A. R/W
B. R/W/X
C. R/O
D. R/X
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share using a Windows 2000 server, but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties.
What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
C. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
D. Quotas can be managed only with Windows 2003 or Windows 2008.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
What occurs after data compression of a RAID-group LUN?
A. Source LUN is unbound from the RAID-group.
B. The LUN is defragmented.
C. Freed space is returned to the storage pool.
D. Host I/O is restarted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
During the installation process of a VNX for Block and File system, you are prompted to change passwords for the default accounts.
Which user password can be changed?
A. sysadmin
B. storageadmin
C. admin
D. administrator
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
What are features of VNX Snapshots?
A. Uses redirect on first write.
Lower write performance impact.
B. Uses copy on first write.
Supported with pool-based LUNs.
C. Uses redirect on first write.
Supported with all LUN types.
D. Uses copy on first write.
Does not require reserve LUN pool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which two protocols can be used for DNS communication on a Data Mover?
A. TCP and UDP
B. TCP and ICMP
C. UDP and ICMP
D. UDP and TLS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
How do storage pool thick LUNs affect capacity?
A. A storage pool thick LUN uses slightly more capacity than the amount of user data written
B. A storage pool thick LUN uses less capacity than the amount the server operating system sees
C. Capacity of a storage pool thick LUN uses the same capacity as the server operating system seesD. Capacity of a storage pool thick LUN uses less user capacity then a traditional LUN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
What is the correct VNX Block based VAAI operation?
A. Array Accelerated Full Copy
B. Array Accelerated Bulk copy
C. Thick Lun Provisioning
D. Pause and Resume
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
When creating a SnapView session, where can a consistent start occur?
A. On multiple source LUNs
B. On multiple target LUNs
C. On multiple reserved LUNs
D. On multiple private LUNs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
What is a critical capacity consideration when configuring traditional RAID Groups on a VNX array?
A. Larger RAID 5 groups maximize the capacity available
B. Larger RAID 6 groups maximize the capacity available
C. Smaller RAID 6 groups maximize the capacity available
D. Smaller RAID 5 groups maximize the capacity available
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
In a VNX Unified system, how can the lost+found and etc directories be hidden from the client when exporting a file system?
A. Export the file system at the subdirectory level and not the root file system
B. Use FDISK to mark the partition active prior to exporting
C. Leave the Root Hosts section empty when exporting
D. Select the Host Access Read-only check box prior to exporting.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which features are included with the VNX Remote Protection Suite?
A. MirrorView, IP-Replicator, Recover Point/SE CRR
B. SANCopy, IP-Replicator, Recover Point/SE CDP
C. MirrorView, IP-Replicator, Recover Point/SE CDP
D. SANCopy, MirrorView, Recover Point/SE CRR
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 13
What is the default size limitation for a SavVol?
A. 20% of the total disk space available
B. 10% of the production file system disk usage
C. 10% of the total disk space available
D. 20% of the production file system disk usage
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
What happens when a new CIFS share is created using Unisphere and all available CIFS server check boxes remain unchecked?
A. A global share is created and served by all CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover.
B. None of the CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover serve the newly created share.
C. The VNX system prompts for selection of at least one CIFS server.
D. A global share is created and served by the primary VDM.Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A customer wants to decrease the size of VNX pool LUNs presented to a Failover Cluster using the LUN shrink feature.
What do you advise?
A. The LUN shrink feature will allow them to reduce LUN sizes for this cluster.
B. LUN shrink is only supported with stand-alone hosts.
C. The LUN shrink feature is not supported with Failover Clusters.
D. The LUN must not be defragmented prior to using the LUN shrink feature.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which describes the VNX Snapshot source LUN write process?
A. Host issues write.
New data is written to a new location.
B. Host issues write.
Old data is copied to the reserve LUN pool.
New data is written to the source LUN.
C. Host issues write.
Data is written to the reserve LUN pool.
D. Host issues write.
Old data is copied to the source LUN.
New data is written to the reserve LUN pool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
When utilizing Unisphere Service Manager to upgrade a Unified VNX platform, which upgrade type is supported?
A. Enabler installs
B. NAS code patches
C. NAS CS Code
D. Unisphere Language Pack installs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
What is a characteristic of tree quotas?
A. Quotas cannot be applied to the root of a file system
B. Tree quotas can be set on existing directories
C. A maximum of 4096 quota trees can be set on a single file system
D. Tree quota policies are applied by default
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to an active VNX Data Mover. How does VNX handle this
situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active.
B. The active Data Mover immediately fails over.
C. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity.
D. The VNX always notifies EMC Customer Service of the problem.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A colleague configured two 512 MB LUNs to be used as Clone Private LUNs (CPLs). When configuring the CPLs, the two 512 MB LUNs do not appear in the list
of available LUNs.
What do you advise?
A. CPLs must be 1024 MB or larger.
B. Login to Engineering mode and retry.
C. CPLs must be 256 MB or smaller.
D. Login as an Administrator and retry.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
What is the default user mapping method available to a VNX?
A. Usermapper
B. Microsoft SFU
C. VNX UNIX User Management
D. Local Files
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which profiles define how the raw physical spindles are aggregated into VNX disk volumes?
A. Storage profiles
B. Volume profiles
C. System profiles
D. Disk profiles
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 23
You are implementing a CIFS solution and will be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data
Mover?
A. Home Directory information
B. CIFS startup configuration
C. DFS root ID information
D. Virus checker configuration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host, but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive
properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
C. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
D. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which protocol is supported by CAVA?
A. CIFS
B. NFS
C. FTP
D. SFTP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
What EMC software product contains a collection of tools that helps you perform basic hardware and software maintenance tasks on an EMC VNX Unified storage
system?
A. Unisphere Service Manager (USM)
B. Navisphere Service Taskbar (NST)
C. CLARiiON Array Properties (CAP)
D. Unisphere Off Array Client
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which statement is true regarding LUN migration within a VNX array?
A. There may be a performance impact.
B. The source LUN remains unchanged after the copy completes.
C. You cannot cancel a LUN migration once it has started.
D. The destination LUN retains its LUN ID and WWN when the copy completes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
A new SAN attached host is unable to see the LUNs created for it on a VNX array. When looking at the host initiators to verify connectivity the Storage Group
listed for the host is ~management.
Which step was missed when provisioning this host?
A. Adding the host to the Storage Group
B. Adding LUNs to the Storage Group
C. Manually registering the host initiators
D. Setting the correct Failover Mode for host initiators
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 29
A storage administrator configured a SnapSure snapshot schedule for a heavily utilized production file system. According to the schedule, three snapshots are to
be created per hour, with the first snapshot created at one minute past the hour.
After an hour, the administrator noticed that the first snapshot was not created on time.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The VNX for File database backup has started in the background.
B. The PFS SavVol has run out of space.
C. The VNX for File has experienced a network outage.
D. The HWM was not configured manually for Auto Extension.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 30
When configuring a VNX Gateway system, which is a compatible backend storage configuration method?
A. VNX Gateway system connected to a VNX Block Only system via FCoE
B. VNX Gateway system connected to a VNX Block Only system via FCiP
C. VNX Gateway system connected to a Symmetrix system via iSCSI
D. VNX Gateway system connected to a Symmetrix system via iFCP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which condition must be met when expanding a LUN?
A. LUNS cannot belong to storage group when expanding
B. LUNS must be in a storage group
C. LUNS can be used by layered applications when expanded
D. LUNS in a pool can be expanded
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
When configuring a thin LUN what option must be selected?
A. Thin box in the Create LUN menu must be checked
B. Private RAID group must be selected in the Create LUN menu
C. LUN Name must be assigned in the Create LUN menu
D. RAID group must be selected in the Create LUN menu
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
You are provisioning a LUN on a VNX array with FAST VP enabled. In addition to Highest Tier Available and Lowest Tier Available, what other tier option(s) is
displayed?
A. Auto-Tier
B. Auto-Tier, No Data Movement
C. Optimize for Performance, No Data Movement
D. Optimize for Performance
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
The Host Initiators window can display up to how many hosts at one time?
A. 1000
B. 512
C. 1024D. 2000
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which back-end bus architecture is used in VNX?
A. SAS
B. FC
C. SCSI
D. SATA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 36
What is the default port that must be open in the firewall for Replication Manager Client Data?
A. 6543
B. 6542
C. 443
D. 65432
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 37
What is the only kind of LUN that VNX Snapshots can use?
A. Pool LUNs
B. Traditional LUNs
C. Clone Private LUNs
D. Reserved LUNs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which action makes CAVA trigger a file scan?
A. Restoring files from backup
B. Listing files and directories
C. Restarting the AV server
D. Restarting the CAVA agent
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 39
In a VNX series array, how does FAST manage data in a heterogeneous storage pool?
A. It relocates more active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
B. It relocates more active data from tier 1 storage without users noticing the difference.
C. It acts as an application accelerator and relocates LUNs based on performance.
D. It relocates LUNs from one tier to another to improve performance.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Where can the Secondary Usermapper run?
A. On physical Data Movers only
B. On virtual Data Movers only
C. On physical or virtual Data Movers
D. On standby Data Movers
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 41
You are asked to create the maximum number of writeable snapshots from a production file system per day, using equivalent intervals. How many snapshots can
be created?
A. 16 — one every 90 min
B. 24 — one every 60 min
C. 48 — one every 30 min
D. 96 — one every 15 minCorrect Answer: A
Explanation

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QUESTION 1
Business analysis bridges the gap between which two disciplines?
A. Business Case Definition and Requirements Analysis.
B. IT Systems Analysis and Acceptance Testing.
C. Requirements Analysis and IT Systems Development.
D. Strategic Analysis and IT Systems Analysis.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Who is the target of the value proposition?
A. The5upplier,
B. The 5ponsor.
C. The Customer.
D. The Competitor.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Business Analysis competencies are divided into three groups. Which of the following are the groups of competencies
for a Business Analyst?
a.
IT skills.
b.
Behavioural skills and personal qualities.
c.
Techniques.
d.
Project Management Support. e. Business Knowledge.
A.
b, c and e.
B. a, b and e.
C.
b, c and d.
D.
a, d and e.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a primary activity in the value chain?
A. Procurement.
B. Firm infrastructure.
C. Service.
D. Technology development.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following stages is immediately after problem-finding in Isaksen and Treffinger\’s creative problem-solving
model?
A. Idea-finding.
B. Solution-finding.
C. Data-finding.
D. Acceptance-finding.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements about outsourcing of systems development is correct?
A. It has meant that it is no longer necessary for analysts to define rigorous, accurate and complete user requirements.
B. It has eliminated the need for effective contract management between the customer and the supplier of the
outsourcing.
C. It has been a significant catalyst in organisations for the development of a business analysis function.
D. It has meant that the programming of solutions is usually undertaken in countries where labour costs are high.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The Business Activity Model shows the doing activities\’ of a business system. Which element of CATWOE do these
activities relate to?
A. Transformation.
B. Actors.
C. Environment.
D. Owner.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following techniques can be used to pull together the results of an analysis of the external and internal
business environment of an organisation?
A. SWOT analysis.
B. Resource audit.
C. Five-forces model.
D. Balanced business scorecard.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
It is claimed that a new system will bring improved job satisfaction to employees. How should this improved job
satisfaction be classified?
A. As a tangible benefit.
B. As an intangible cost.
C. As a tangible cost.
D. As an intangible benefit.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When is the self-esteem of individuals affected by a change process usually at its lowest?
A. At the end of the change process.
B. At the start of the change process.
C. At all points during the change process.
D. In the middle phase of the change process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A project reporting system stores information about Employees. How would an Employee be represented in an entity-
relationship diagram?
A. As an Actor.
B. As an Attribute.
C. As an Entity.
D. As a Relationship.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Style guides, manuals and job descriptions are examples of what type of knowledge?
A. Explicit.
B. Implicit.
C. Tacit.
D. Organisational.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements about change and change management is correct?
A. Change management should be considered right from the start of the project.
B. Change management should first be considered in the design stage of the project.
C. The management of change is the sole responsibility of the project manager.
D. Social and cultural factors have little influence on the success of implementing changes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A system holds information about an employee; Mike Berry. Which of the following is Mike Berry an example of?
A. An attribute.
B. An object.
C. A class.
D. An operation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
When analysing stakeholders, it is useful to produce a stakeholder analysis grid. What is depicted on the axes of this
grid?
A. Objectives and interests.
B. Power and influence.
C. Perspectives and impacts.
D. Power and interest.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
The following requirement has been identified; The system must be able to record customer payments\’. What type of
requirement is this?
A. A functional requirement.
B. A non-functional requirement.
C. A general requirement.
D. A technical requirement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
An analyst has asked a user to describe each step in a task as they perform it. Which of the following investigation
techniques is the analyst using?
A. Ethnographic study.
B. Interviewing.
C. Activity sampling.
D. Protocol analysts.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
The V model is an example of which of the following?
A. A business analysis process model.
B. A systems development lifecycle.
C. A concerns-based adoption model.
D. A soft systems methodology.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Cars, trucks and motorbikes are all types of vehicle. What structure could be used on a class model to model this?
A. Generalisation
B. Association class
C. Exclusivity relationship
D. The andlt;andlt;includeandgt;andgt; construct
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which of the following investigation techniques is MOST appropriate for collecting quantitative information?
A. Workshops.
B. Activity sampling.
C. Interviewing.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
An analyst has discovered that a company wishes to hold information about departments and employees. A department
may have many employees in it, but each employee can, at any one time, only work in one department. There is no
requirement to store historical information. However, there are currently eight departments and over one hundred
employees. How would this relationship be shown on an Entity Relationship diagram?
A. As (8..100) at the Department end of the relationship.
B. As a many-to-many between Department and Employee.
C. As a one-to-one between Department and Employee.
D. As a one-to-many between Department and Employee.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following actions could sustain business change?
A. Develop the coaching skills of selected staff members.
B. Establish clear benefits for selected, powerful stakeholders.
C. Retain the previous system and its associated processes.
D. Ensure that improved staff performance is not rewarded.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following types of activity help identify the KPI\’s of an organisation?
A. The doing activities.
B. The monitoring activities.
C. The control activities.
D. The planning activities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
The Boston Box may be used to analyse the portfolio of businesses owned by an organisation. Which of the following
animals does it use in its term for businesses that have low market share in a market with low growth?
A. Cow.
B. Cat.
C. Dog.
D. Goat.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
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cisco  200-355 exam dumps Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals[Q&As: 504(There are 4 parts in the dump, 504 questions in total.)]-q1-q49

QUESTION 1
What is max power for an AP for all regulatory bodies?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 1
D. X
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How Cisco spectrum analyzer analyse the scanned data?
A. Store scanned data during wifi scan and analyze later.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the deployment that requires least amount of hardware installed on the site?
A. Cloud
B. Converged
C. Centralized
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What command can be used on the WLC to show the logs (or something) for an AP with the name
Cisco_AP?
A. show logging
B. show ap eventlog Cisco_AP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the command used to debug an AP that is not able to join the WLC?
A. debug capwap events enable (on the WLC)
B. debug capwap events enable (on the AP)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are the channels you need to avoid not to have interference with DFS channels? (Choose 3)
A. 52
B. 136
C. 124
D. 161
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
What is required from the deployment when using voice or video applications? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI cell edge of -25B. RSSI cell edge of -16
C. SNR of 25
D. Cell Overlap of 20%
E. RSSI -67
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
What are the sources of interference you will find when conducting a site survery before deployment?
(Choose 3)
A. Bluetooth Headset
B. Microwave Ovens
C. Analog Wireless Camera
D. AdHoc Wireless Camera
E. AdHoc Hotspot
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What are reqs for VoWLAN?
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% overlapping cells
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is SNR needed for 54 Mbps?
A. SNR 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is max level in Cisco WLC TPC for all regulatory domain?
A. 1
B. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Engineer needs an LAP to support few WLANs with different DHCP servers for different SSIDs, how to
fulfill this requirement?
A. configuring dynamic VLAN interfacesto SSIDs in AP group.
B. configure DHCP in AP settings advanced page
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. PlanningCorrect Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% cell overlapping
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP?
A. Wireless
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Monitor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS?
A. TFTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is
displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.)
A. Authority ID
B. Authority ID Information
C. Client Key
D. PAC
E. Server Key
F. TTL for PAC
G. Monitor Key
H. NTP Source
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 23
Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client
associated with a lightweight access point?
A. debug dot11
B. show arp switch
C. show client detailed
D. show exclusionlist
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement applies to TKIP?
A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key
B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session
C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions
D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz
maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?
A. 16 dBm
B. 17 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco
WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750
wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux
does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band?
A. Complimentary Code Keying
B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying
C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior
controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM.
What is the next step the AP performs?
A. DHCP option 43.
B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain.
C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a
Cisco WLC?
A. AP priming
B. defining a master controller
C. DHCP Option 6
D. DHCP Option 43
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
What unit of measurement is used to represent the strength of an antenna’s radiation pattern?
A. dBi
B. dBm
C. mW
D. GHz
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which physical layer encoding technology is common to both the IEEE 802.11g and the IEEE 802.11a
standards?
A. BPSK
B. CCK
C. DSSS
D. OFDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet
mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1?
A. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
B. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
C. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
D. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1E. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
F. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
A controller-based wireless solution can avoid interference by dynamically adjusting, what two access
point transmission characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. operating RF channel
B. SSID names
C. transmit power levels
D. switch port parameters
E. antenna gain
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.)
A. antenna bandwidth
B. antenna gain
C. cable loss
D. receiver sensitivity
E. SSID
F. transmission power
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 36
Which statement best represents the authorization aspect of AAA?
A. Authorization takes place after a successful authentication and provides the Cisco WLC the information
needed to allow client access to network resources.
B. Authorization is the validation of successful DHCP address delivery to the wireless client.
C. Authorization must be successfully completed in order to proceed with the authentication phase.
D. Successful authorization will provide encryption keys that will be used to secure the wireless
communications between client and AP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers?
A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
C. Narrow Band Frequency
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Correct Answer:D

DQUESTION 38
Which two statements best describe LWAPP? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco proprietary
B. communication between the AP and client
C. communication between the AP and the WLC
D. Lightweight Access Point provisioning
E. used to encrypt control and data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 39
What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different
propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of
objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
What three roles are defined by 802.1X? (Choose three.)
A. AAA Server
B. Authenticatee
C. Authenticator
D. Authentication Server
E. Supplicant
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 41
Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. War Driving
D. Man-in-the-Middle
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 42
Which two tasks does RRM routinely perform? (Choose two.)
A. antenna selection
B. AP address assignment
C. channel assignment
D. encryption method assignment
E. transmit power control
Correct Answer:CE

CEQUESTION 43
In general, what is the difference in transmit power between an AP operating at Tx Power Level 1 and the
same AP operating at Tx Power Level 3?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB
D. 11 dB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a
local subnet, what is the next step that the AP takes?
A. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller.
B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational.
C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known.
D. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 45
Why are wireless analog video signals that are operating in the 2.4-GHz band particularly harmful to Wi-Fi
service?
A. Analog video is a strong signal and increases the SNR.
B. Analog video is a constant signal with 100% duty cycle.
C. Analog video signals are slow frequency hopping and tend to affect the entire band.
D. Analog Video modulation is the same as Wi-Fi and causes interference.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
What security benefit is enabled by using Management Frame Protection?
A. Provides encryption of administrator sessions between a wireless client and a wireless LAN controller.
B. Protects the network infrastructure from denial-of-service attacks that attempt to flood the network with
associations and probes.
C. Prevents the formation of client ad hoc networks within the RF coverage domain.
D. Detects network reconnaissance probes, like those used by tools like NetStumbler, that attempt to
discover the wireless network topology.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 47
The corporate network locates all RADIUS servers at the centralized data center for authentication. The
remote offices use access points operating in H-REAP mode using v5.0 code with various local and
central switch WLANs. When a remote office has lost connectivity to the main corporate network due to a
WAN outage, which two statements correctly describe the status of that remote office when H-REAP
access points are operating in standalone mode? (Choose two.)
A. All Cisco APs with 16 MB of RAM or more can operate as standalone H-REAP.
B. All clients will continue association until the respective authentication timers expire.
C. If configured, clients using WPA or WPA2 with PSK and locally switched WLANs will continue to
operate.
D. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using the backup RADIUS server feature.E. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAP-LEAP and
EAP-FAST for up to twenty users.
F. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAPLEAP, EAP-
FAST, EAP-TLS, and EAP-PEAP for up to twenty users.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 48
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
On witch tab on the WLC web interface can the administrator change the AP power level?
A. WLAN
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Wireless
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 18
What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to access enterprise data and systems?
A. ISE
B. BYOD
C. SAN
D. IOE
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two.)
A. Improve flexibility
B. Facilitates implementation
C. Lowers implementation costs
D. Improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Blocking
D. Listening
E. Disabled
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Application
B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Core Common Services
F. Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 22
What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces operational cost
B. Higher port density
C. Investment protection
D. Consistent operation
E. Improved fault tolerance
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 23
Which two statements about the Enterprise Data Center Aggregation submodule are correct? (Choose two.)
A. it provides Layer 4-7 services
B. It should never support STP
C. It is the critical point for control and application services
D. It typically provides Layer 2 connectivity from the data center to the core
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 24
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls ?
A. Small
B. Medium
C. Large
D. Extra large
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
A network engineer is attempting to separate routing domains using virtualization technology. What protocol can be configured to perform this task?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. VRF
D. vPC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A network design shows two routers that are directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical connections. There is an OSPF Adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution ensures that interface-down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?
A. Optimized OSPF SPF timers
B. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
C. Automatic protection switching
D. Optimized OSPF LSA timers
E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? (Choose three.)
A. Goals
B. Budget
C. User needs
D. Locations
E. Policies
F. Tasks
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Which two are characteristics of a Lightweight Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. Managed via a central wireless LAN controller
B. Code upgrade performed via a TFTP server
C. CAPWAP tunnels
D. Managed directly via CLI or web interface
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 29
200-310 dumps
Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose two)
A. A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core layer
B. A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access layer
C. B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer
D. B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer
E. A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer
F. B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 30
200-310 dumps
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following
would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Classful routing
B. Scalability
C. Default route origination
D. Multi vendor support
E. Link load balancing
F. Hop count
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 34
Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer switches?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.1x
C. 802.3af
D. 802.3q
E. 802.11n
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN design?
A. Roaming between APs
B. RADIUS user authentication
C. Radio resource management
D. accelerated data transfer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Provides information about directly connected Cisco devices
B. Provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C. Combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D. Part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two.)
A. ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization
B. ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization
C. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR
D. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR
E. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. Floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. Bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum path
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols would they use to gain
insight into the network and determine the components that require optimization? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. NetFlow
C. ICMP Echo
D. NMAP
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 40
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?
A. Circuit bandwidth
B. Prioritization
C. Security
D. Operational expense
200-310 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Which model of ISR is utilized for the teleworker design profile?
A. Cisco 1900 Series
B. Cisco 1800 Series
C. Cisco 800 Series
D. Cisco 500 Series
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 42
200-310 dumps
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
What are the three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input
B. Perform a traffic analysis
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer\’s existing network
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 45
What are two benefits of the bottom-up design approach? (Choose two.)
A. Allows a quick response to a design request
B. Facilitates design that is based on previous experience
C. Requires little or no notation of actual requirements for implementation
D. Incorporates organizational requirements
E. Provides a broader overview to the organization and the designer
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 46
A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the distribution block?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 48
Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)
A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
B. Fast hellos
C. LSA retransmission interval
D. SPF throttle timers
E. LSA group pacing
200-310 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 49
You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that will use minimal network bandwidth. Which would
satisfy this requirement?
A. RIPv2
B. RIPng
C. OSPF
D. ARP
E. EGP
Correct Answer: C

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Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
200-105 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port , designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is not the root port. 1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID

Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
200-105 dumps Answer: D,F
Explanation:

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation:
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is connected directly to the Printers. Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are designated ports. Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role. By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.

Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
200-105 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP)
Introduction
VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.

Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring…) configured by default -> A is not correct. To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.
VLANs don’t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the
switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct. We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.

Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
200-105 vce Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1w)
Port States
There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state. RSTP only has 3 port states which are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.
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QUESTION 26
Which of the following must you avoid to ensure your calculation view uses only the calculation engine? (Choose three)
A. Combining SQL and CE Functions
B. Reading from tables in the column store
C. Reading from tables using SELECT statements
D. Joins using SQL
E. DO WHILE loops

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 27
You have created an analytic view and an analytic privilege that filters on 3 attributes:
Sales region = “West”

Sales channel = “Online”, “Retail”

Product category = “Electronics”.
After granting the analytic privilege to a user, what data can the user see?

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following sequences of steps is required before you can create a report on an analytic view using replicated SAP ERP data?
A. Set up replication from ERP ? Create an analytic view ? Create analytic privileges ? Create a business layer
B. Create a business layer ? Set up replication from ERP ? Create an analytic view ? Create analytic privileges
C. Create an analytic view ? Create analytic privileges ? Set up replication from ERP ? Create a business layer
D. Create an analytic view ? Set up replication from ERP ? Create analytic privileges ? Create a business layer

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What does the following SQL statement do?
SELECT SCORE() as SCORE, PRODUCT_NAME, * FROM PRODUCT_ITEMS WHERE CONTAINS(*,’Paper’, FUZZY(0.8)) ORDER BY PRODUCT_NAME
A. It performs a fuzzy search on all columns in the PRODUCT_NAME table for the term ‘Paper’.
B. It performs a fuzzy search count on the number of columns in the PRODUCT_NAME table that contain the term ‘Paper’.
C. It performs a fuzzy search on the PRODUCT_NAME column in the PRODUCT_ITEMS table for the term ‘Paper’.
D. It performs a fuzzy search of all columns in the PRODUCT_ITEMS table for the term ‘Paper’.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
A company wants to use SAP BusinessObjects reporting tools. They cannot use Adobe Flash. They require scheduled, ready-made reports.
Which reporting tool do you recommend? (Choose two)
A. Dashboards
B. Web Intelligence
C. Explorer
D. Crystal Reports
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
You have created SAP HANA information models from replicated SAP ECC data.
How can you compare the data of the replicated tables with the underlying ECC source data? (Choose two)
A. Use the SAP ERP Data Browser (transaction SE16).
B. Use the Catalog node to open table contents.
C. Use transaction IUUC_REPL_CONTENT.
D. Use the Data Provisioning view from the Quick Launch.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 32
A customer wants to report on large amounts of SAP HANA data. The users want to drill from the top aggregation level to the lowest granularity and try different types of graphical representations of the data on the fly.
Which SAP BusinessObjects reporting tool would you recommend?
A. SAP BusinessObjects Dashboards

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