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QUESTION 1
What is an accurate statement about a hardware RAID implementation?
A. Uses a specialized hardware controller installed on a storage array
B. Uses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations
C. Requires a RAID controller and operating system to be compatible
D. Offers a low-cost solution for providing disk protection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is an accurate statement about a virtual desktop infrastructure?
A. Each user is provided a dedicated desktop VM with its own operating system and applications
B. Operating system and applications hosted on a client system are shared by multiple users
C. Each user has an individual desktop session on the remote compute system in which applications execute
D. Operating system and applications on the remote desktop are downloaded on the client for local execution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which type of digital data consists of textual data with inconsistent formats but can be formatted with the use of software
tools?
A. Quasi-structured data
B. Semi-structured data
C. Metadata
D. Unstructured data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution by retaining their legacy backup application. They are
concerned about the application servers\’ performance and a long backup window during backups.
Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended to the organization?
A. Post-process
B. Source-based global deduplication
C. Variable-length segment and source-based D. Fixed-length block and source-based
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is an accurate statement about a logical volume in a compute system?
A. Can span across multiple physical volumes
B. Can only be created from a single physical volume
C. Must be created across multiple volume groups
D. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an insecure network?
A. Secret-key cryptography
B. One-way hash function
C. Shared secret
D. OpenID control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
In an object-based storage system, data is divided into 9 data segments and 3 coding segments using the erasure
coding technique. What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by this
configuration?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations. The company
has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In addition, the company has less
critical applications such as backup and archive.
Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?
A. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications ona public cloud.
B. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on an
externally-hosted private cloud.
C. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on a
public cloud.
D. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud. Deploy the less critical applications on
an on-premise private cloud.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is an accurate statement about the Common Internet File System (CIFS) protocol?
A. Enables a CIFS server to maintain connection information regarding every connected client
B. Uses a Remote Procedure Call mechanism to provide access to the CIFS supported file systems
C. Contains an open variation of the stateless user datagram protocol that stores information about open files
D. Uses file system locking to enable users to simultaneously overwrite all metadata of a file system
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is a function of the NDMP server in an NDMP-based backup approach?
A. Reads the data from the storage device and sends the data to the backup device
B. Reads the data from the backup server and sends the data to the backup device
C. Instructs the NAS head to start the backup operation
D. Instructs the backup agent on the client to send the data to the backup device
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is a function of the FC-1 layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack?
A. Defines data encoding
B. Provides FC addressing
C. Defines the physical interface
D. Maps upper layer protocols to FC layers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the allocation of bandwidth to different network
traffic classes?
A. Enhanced transmission selection
B. Priority-based flow control
C. Congestion notification
D. Data center bridging exchange protocol
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels andquot;Xandquot; and andquot;Yandquot; represent in the
exhibit?
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A. X is an E_Port and Y is an N_Port
B. X is an F_Port and Y is an E_Port
C. X is an F_Port and Y is an F_Port
D. X is an N_Port and Y is an N_Port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24 hours; Monday through Friday.
During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows:
Tuesday = 8 AM to 1 PM
Thursday = 5 PM to 10 PM
Friday = 5 AM to 10 AM What is the mean time between failures on component 3 for that week?
A. 5 hours
B. 35 hours
C. 40 hours
D. 51 hours
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
A. Captures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
B. Provides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
C. Runs as an independent copy from the parent VM
D. Provides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
In which stage of the business continuity planning lifecycle does an organization identify critical business processes and
assign recovery priorities?
A. Analyzing
B. Establishing objectives
C. Designing and developing
D. Implementing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS cluster when clients send data to the cluster?
A. Data is divided and stored on multiple nodes in parallel
B. Data is consolidated into a block and then stored on the NAS head
C. Data is evenly distributed to every file system in the cluster
D. NAS file system and cluster grow dynamically to store the data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal accessibility with support for object
and HDFS?
A. ECS Appliance
B. XtremIO
C. Data Domain
D. Centera
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Why is it important for organizations to maintain a copy of data at a remote site?
A. Ensure disaster recovery
B. Provide operational recovery
C. Ensure data archiving to meet regulatory requirements
D. Provide flexibility to use stub files for production operations
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and incremental back ups on the remaining days at
9:00
AM. However, at 10 PM on Friday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup copies.
How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?
A.
2
B.
4
C.
5
D.
6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
In an FC SAN environment, which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being enabled even after a switch
reboot?
A. Port locking
B. Port type locking
C. Port binding
D. Fabric binding
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures?
A. Vaulting
B. Mirroring
C. Cache tiering
D. Idle flushing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?
A. Balances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage systems
B. Enables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure
C. Improves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system
D. Reduces the overall storage system capacity requirements for organizations
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which elements are associated with an object in an object-based storage system?
A. Data, metadata, object ID, and attributes
B. LUN ID, data, metadata, and object ID
C. Metadata, object ID, attributes, and file path
D. Object ID, attributes, LUN ID, and file path
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What is an accurate statement about a data lake?
A. Stores data as an exact or near-exact copy of the source format
B. Supports query and analysis by classifying and organizing data before storing
C. Stores current and historical data in a structured format on object-based storage
D. Provides a single consistent view of data across an organization for report generation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
What is a benefit of a andquot;recovery-in-placeandquot; backup approach in a virtualized data center?
A. Provides instant recovery of a failed virtual machine
B. Reduces the recovery point objective
C. Eliminates redundant data during virtual machine backups
D. Eliminates the backup window
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What accurately describes link aggregation in a SAN?
A. Combines two or more parallel interswitch links into a single logical interswitch link
B. Aggregates the data transmission rate of all HBA and storage system port pairs
C. Consolidates compute-to-compute traffic and storage traffic into a single interswitch link
D. Replaces multiple parallel interswitch links by a single physical interswitch link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which LUN expansion technique provides both capacity expansion and performance improvement?
A. Striped metaLUN
B. Partitioned metaLUN
C. Virtual metaLUN
D. Concatenated metaLUN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What refers to an IT infrastructure\’s ability to function based on business expectations during its specified time ofoperations?
A. Information availability
B. Disaster recovery
C. Compliance adherence
D. Business agility
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which data structure enables two node ports to identify and manage a set of information units in a Fibre Channel (FC)
SAN?
A. Exchange
B. Sequence
C. Frame
D. Domain
Correct Answer: A

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
What default option does a newly created file system have when it is NFS exported?
A. R/W
B. R/W/X
C. R/O
D. R/X
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share using a Windows 2000 server, but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties.
What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
C. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
D. Quotas can be managed only with Windows 2003 or Windows 2008.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
What occurs after data compression of a RAID-group LUN?
A. Source LUN is unbound from the RAID-group.
B. The LUN is defragmented.
C. Freed space is returned to the storage pool.
D. Host I/O is restarted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
During the installation process of a VNX for Block and File system, you are prompted to change passwords for the default accounts.
Which user password can be changed?
A. sysadmin
B. storageadmin
C. admin
D. administrator
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
What are features of VNX Snapshots?
A. Uses redirect on first write.
Lower write performance impact.
B. Uses copy on first write.
Supported with pool-based LUNs.
C. Uses redirect on first write.
Supported with all LUN types.
D. Uses copy on first write.
Does not require reserve LUN pool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which two protocols can be used for DNS communication on a Data Mover?
A. TCP and UDP
B. TCP and ICMP
C. UDP and ICMP
D. UDP and TLS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
How do storage pool thick LUNs affect capacity?
A. A storage pool thick LUN uses slightly more capacity than the amount of user data written
B. A storage pool thick LUN uses less capacity than the amount the server operating system sees
C. Capacity of a storage pool thick LUN uses the same capacity as the server operating system seesD. Capacity of a storage pool thick LUN uses less user capacity then a traditional LUN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
What is the correct VNX Block based VAAI operation?
A. Array Accelerated Full Copy
B. Array Accelerated Bulk copy
C. Thick Lun Provisioning
D. Pause and Resume
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
When creating a SnapView session, where can a consistent start occur?
A. On multiple source LUNs
B. On multiple target LUNs
C. On multiple reserved LUNs
D. On multiple private LUNs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
What is a critical capacity consideration when configuring traditional RAID Groups on a VNX array?
A. Larger RAID 5 groups maximize the capacity available
B. Larger RAID 6 groups maximize the capacity available
C. Smaller RAID 6 groups maximize the capacity available
D. Smaller RAID 5 groups maximize the capacity available
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 11
In a VNX Unified system, how can the lost+found and etc directories be hidden from the client when exporting a file system?
A. Export the file system at the subdirectory level and not the root file system
B. Use FDISK to mark the partition active prior to exporting
C. Leave the Root Hosts section empty when exporting
D. Select the Host Access Read-only check box prior to exporting.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which features are included with the VNX Remote Protection Suite?
A. MirrorView, IP-Replicator, Recover Point/SE CRR
B. SANCopy, IP-Replicator, Recover Point/SE CDP
C. MirrorView, IP-Replicator, Recover Point/SE CDP
D. SANCopy, MirrorView, Recover Point/SE CRR
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 13
What is the default size limitation for a SavVol?
A. 20% of the total disk space available
B. 10% of the production file system disk usage
C. 10% of the total disk space available
D. 20% of the production file system disk usage
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 14
What happens when a new CIFS share is created using Unisphere and all available CIFS server check boxes remain unchecked?
A. A global share is created and served by all CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover.
B. None of the CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover serve the newly created share.
C. The VNX system prompts for selection of at least one CIFS server.
D. A global share is created and served by the primary VDM.Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A customer wants to decrease the size of VNX pool LUNs presented to a Failover Cluster using the LUN shrink feature.
What do you advise?
A. The LUN shrink feature will allow them to reduce LUN sizes for this cluster.
B. LUN shrink is only supported with stand-alone hosts.
C. The LUN shrink feature is not supported with Failover Clusters.
D. The LUN must not be defragmented prior to using the LUN shrink feature.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which describes the VNX Snapshot source LUN write process?
A. Host issues write.
New data is written to a new location.
B. Host issues write.
Old data is copied to the reserve LUN pool.
New data is written to the source LUN.
C. Host issues write.
Data is written to the reserve LUN pool.
D. Host issues write.
Old data is copied to the source LUN.
New data is written to the reserve LUN pool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 17
When utilizing Unisphere Service Manager to upgrade a Unified VNX platform, which upgrade type is supported?
A. Enabler installs
B. NAS code patches
C. NAS CS Code
D. Unisphere Language Pack installs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
What is a characteristic of tree quotas?
A. Quotas cannot be applied to the root of a file system
B. Tree quotas can be set on existing directories
C. A maximum of 4096 quota trees can be set on a single file system
D. Tree quota policies are applied by default
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to an active VNX Data Mover. How does VNX handle this
situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active.
B. The active Data Mover immediately fails over.
C. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity.
D. The VNX always notifies EMC Customer Service of the problem.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A colleague configured two 512 MB LUNs to be used as Clone Private LUNs (CPLs). When configuring the CPLs, the two 512 MB LUNs do not appear in the list
of available LUNs.
What do you advise?
A. CPLs must be 1024 MB or larger.
B. Login to Engineering mode and retry.
C. CPLs must be 256 MB or smaller.
D. Login as an Administrator and retry.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
What is the default user mapping method available to a VNX?
A. Usermapper
B. Microsoft SFU
C. VNX UNIX User Management
D. Local Files
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which profiles define how the raw physical spindles are aggregated into VNX disk volumes?
A. Storage profiles
B. Volume profiles
C. System profiles
D. Disk profiles
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 23
You are implementing a CIFS solution and will be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data
Mover?
A. Home Directory information
B. CIFS startup configuration
C. DFS root ID information
D. Virus checker configuration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host, but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive
properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
C. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
D. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which protocol is supported by CAVA?
A. CIFS
B. NFS
C. FTP
D. SFTP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
What EMC software product contains a collection of tools that helps you perform basic hardware and software maintenance tasks on an EMC VNX Unified storage
system?
A. Unisphere Service Manager (USM)
B. Navisphere Service Taskbar (NST)
C. CLARiiON Array Properties (CAP)
D. Unisphere Off Array Client
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which statement is true regarding LUN migration within a VNX array?
A. There may be a performance impact.
B. The source LUN remains unchanged after the copy completes.
C. You cannot cancel a LUN migration once it has started.
D. The destination LUN retains its LUN ID and WWN when the copy completes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
A new SAN attached host is unable to see the LUNs created for it on a VNX array. When looking at the host initiators to verify connectivity the Storage Group
listed for the host is ~management.
Which step was missed when provisioning this host?
A. Adding the host to the Storage Group
B. Adding LUNs to the Storage Group
C. Manually registering the host initiators
D. Setting the correct Failover Mode for host initiators
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 29
A storage administrator configured a SnapSure snapshot schedule for a heavily utilized production file system. According to the schedule, three snapshots are to
be created per hour, with the first snapshot created at one minute past the hour.
After an hour, the administrator noticed that the first snapshot was not created on time.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The VNX for File database backup has started in the background.
B. The PFS SavVol has run out of space.
C. The VNX for File has experienced a network outage.
D. The HWM was not configured manually for Auto Extension.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 30
When configuring a VNX Gateway system, which is a compatible backend storage configuration method?
A. VNX Gateway system connected to a VNX Block Only system via FCoE
B. VNX Gateway system connected to a VNX Block Only system via FCiP
C. VNX Gateway system connected to a Symmetrix system via iSCSI
D. VNX Gateway system connected to a Symmetrix system via iFCP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which condition must be met when expanding a LUN?
A. LUNS cannot belong to storage group when expanding
B. LUNS must be in a storage group
C. LUNS can be used by layered applications when expanded
D. LUNS in a pool can be expanded
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 32
When configuring a thin LUN what option must be selected?
A. Thin box in the Create LUN menu must be checked
B. Private RAID group must be selected in the Create LUN menu
C. LUN Name must be assigned in the Create LUN menu
D. RAID group must be selected in the Create LUN menu
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
You are provisioning a LUN on a VNX array with FAST VP enabled. In addition to Highest Tier Available and Lowest Tier Available, what other tier option(s) is
displayed?
A. Auto-Tier
B. Auto-Tier, No Data Movement
C. Optimize for Performance, No Data Movement
D. Optimize for Performance
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 34
The Host Initiators window can display up to how many hosts at one time?
A. 1000
B. 512
C. 1024D. 2000
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which back-end bus architecture is used in VNX?
A. SAS
B. FC
C. SCSI
D. SATA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 36
What is the default port that must be open in the firewall for Replication Manager Client Data?
A. 6543
B. 6542
C. 443
D. 65432
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 37
What is the only kind of LUN that VNX Snapshots can use?
A. Pool LUNs
B. Traditional LUNs
C. Clone Private LUNs
D. Reserved LUNs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which action makes CAVA trigger a file scan?
A. Restoring files from backup
B. Listing files and directories
C. Restarting the AV server
D. Restarting the CAVA agent
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 39
In a VNX series array, how does FAST manage data in a heterogeneous storage pool?
A. It relocates more active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
B. It relocates more active data from tier 1 storage without users noticing the difference.
C. It acts as an application accelerator and relocates LUNs based on performance.
D. It relocates LUNs from one tier to another to improve performance.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Where can the Secondary Usermapper run?
A. On physical Data Movers only
B. On virtual Data Movers only
C. On physical or virtual Data Movers
D. On standby Data Movers
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 41
You are asked to create the maximum number of writeable snapshots from a production file system per day, using equivalent intervals. How many snapshots can
be created?
A. 16 — one every 90 min
B. 24 — one every 60 min
C. 48 — one every 30 min
D. 96 — one every 15 minCorrect Answer: A
Explanation

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QUESTION 1
Business analysis bridges the gap between which two disciplines?
A. Business Case Definition and Requirements Analysis.
B. IT Systems Analysis and Acceptance Testing.
C. Requirements Analysis and IT Systems Development.
D. Strategic Analysis and IT Systems Analysis.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Who is the target of the value proposition?
A. The5upplier,
B. The 5ponsor.
C. The Customer.
D. The Competitor.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Business Analysis competencies are divided into three groups. Which of the following are the groups of competencies
for a Business Analyst?
a.
IT skills.
b.
Behavioural skills and personal qualities.
c.
Techniques.
d.
Project Management Support. e. Business Knowledge.
A.
b, c and e.
B. a, b and e.
C.
b, c and d.
D.
a, d and e.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a primary activity in the value chain?
A. Procurement.
B. Firm infrastructure.
C. Service.
D. Technology development.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following stages is immediately after problem-finding in Isaksen and Treffinger\’s creative problem-solving
model?
A. Idea-finding.
B. Solution-finding.
C. Data-finding.
D. Acceptance-finding.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements about outsourcing of systems development is correct?
A. It has meant that it is no longer necessary for analysts to define rigorous, accurate and complete user requirements.
B. It has eliminated the need for effective contract management between the customer and the supplier of the
outsourcing.
C. It has been a significant catalyst in organisations for the development of a business analysis function.
D. It has meant that the programming of solutions is usually undertaken in countries where labour costs are high.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The Business Activity Model shows the doing activities\’ of a business system. Which element of CATWOE do these
activities relate to?
A. Transformation.
B. Actors.
C. Environment.
D. Owner.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following techniques can be used to pull together the results of an analysis of the external and internal
business environment of an organisation?
A. SWOT analysis.
B. Resource audit.
C. Five-forces model.
D. Balanced business scorecard.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
It is claimed that a new system will bring improved job satisfaction to employees. How should this improved job
satisfaction be classified?
A. As a tangible benefit.
B. As an intangible cost.
C. As a tangible cost.
D. As an intangible benefit.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When is the self-esteem of individuals affected by a change process usually at its lowest?
A. At the end of the change process.
B. At the start of the change process.
C. At all points during the change process.
D. In the middle phase of the change process.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A project reporting system stores information about Employees. How would an Employee be represented in an entity-
relationship diagram?
A. As an Actor.
B. As an Attribute.
C. As an Entity.
D. As a Relationship.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Style guides, manuals and job descriptions are examples of what type of knowledge?
A. Explicit.
B. Implicit.
C. Tacit.
D. Organisational.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements about change and change management is correct?
A. Change management should be considered right from the start of the project.
B. Change management should first be considered in the design stage of the project.
C. The management of change is the sole responsibility of the project manager.
D. Social and cultural factors have little influence on the success of implementing changes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A system holds information about an employee; Mike Berry. Which of the following is Mike Berry an example of?
A. An attribute.
B. An object.
C. A class.
D. An operation.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
When analysing stakeholders, it is useful to produce a stakeholder analysis grid. What is depicted on the axes of this
grid?
A. Objectives and interests.
B. Power and influence.
C. Perspectives and impacts.
D. Power and interest.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
The following requirement has been identified; The system must be able to record customer payments\’. What type of
requirement is this?
A. A functional requirement.
B. A non-functional requirement.
C. A general requirement.
D. A technical requirement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
An analyst has asked a user to describe each step in a task as they perform it. Which of the following investigation
techniques is the analyst using?
A. Ethnographic study.
B. Interviewing.
C. Activity sampling.
D. Protocol analysts.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
The V model is an example of which of the following?
A. A business analysis process model.
B. A systems development lifecycle.
C. A concerns-based adoption model.
D. A soft systems methodology.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Cars, trucks and motorbikes are all types of vehicle. What structure could be used on a class model to model this?
A. Generalisation
B. Association class
C. Exclusivity relationship
D. The andlt;andlt;includeandgt;andgt; construct
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which of the following investigation techniques is MOST appropriate for collecting quantitative information?
A. Workshops.
B. Activity sampling.
C. Interviewing.
D. Prototyping.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
An analyst has discovered that a company wishes to hold information about departments and employees. A department
may have many employees in it, but each employee can, at any one time, only work in one department. There is no
requirement to store historical information. However, there are currently eight departments and over one hundred
employees. How would this relationship be shown on an Entity Relationship diagram?
A. As (8..100) at the Department end of the relationship.
B. As a many-to-many between Department and Employee.
C. As a one-to-one between Department and Employee.
D. As a one-to-many between Department and Employee.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following actions could sustain business change?
A. Develop the coaching skills of selected staff members.
B. Establish clear benefits for selected, powerful stakeholders.
C. Retain the previous system and its associated processes.
D. Ensure that improved staff performance is not rewarded.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which of the following types of activity help identify the KPI\’s of an organisation?
A. The doing activities.
B. The monitoring activities.
C. The control activities.
D. The planning activities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
The Boston Box may be used to analyse the portfolio of businesses owned by an organisation. Which of the following
animals does it use in its term for businesses that have low market share in a market with low growth?
A. Cow.
B. Cat.
C. Dog.
D. Goat.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
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cisco  200-355 exam dumps Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals[Q&As: 504(There are 4 parts in the dump, 504 questions in total.)]-q1-q49

QUESTION 1
What is max power for an AP for all regulatory bodies?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 1
D. X
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How Cisco spectrum analyzer analyse the scanned data?
A. Store scanned data during wifi scan and analyze later.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the deployment that requires least amount of hardware installed on the site?
A. Cloud
B. Converged
C. Centralized
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What command can be used on the WLC to show the logs (or something) for an AP with the name
Cisco_AP?
A. show logging
B. show ap eventlog Cisco_AP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the command used to debug an AP that is not able to join the WLC?
A. debug capwap events enable (on the WLC)
B. debug capwap events enable (on the AP)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are the channels you need to avoid not to have interference with DFS channels? (Choose 3)
A. 52
B. 136
C. 124
D. 161
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
What is required from the deployment when using voice or video applications? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI cell edge of -25B. RSSI cell edge of -16
C. SNR of 25
D. Cell Overlap of 20%
E. RSSI -67
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
What are the sources of interference you will find when conducting a site survery before deployment?
(Choose 3)
A. Bluetooth Headset
B. Microwave Ovens
C. Analog Wireless Camera
D. AdHoc Wireless Camera
E. AdHoc Hotspot
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What are reqs for VoWLAN?
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% overlapping cells
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is SNR needed for 54 Mbps?
A. SNR 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is max level in Cisco WLC TPC for all regulatory domain?
A. 1
B. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Engineer needs an LAP to support few WLANs with different DHCP servers for different SSIDs, how to
fulfill this requirement?
A. configuring dynamic VLAN interfacesto SSIDs in AP group.
B. configure DHCP in AP settings advanced page
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. PlanningCorrect Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% cell overlapping
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP?
A. Wireless
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Monitor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS?
A. TFTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is
displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.)
A. Authority ID
B. Authority ID Information
C. Client Key
D. PAC
E. Server Key
F. TTL for PAC
G. Monitor Key
H. NTP Source
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 23
Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client
associated with a lightweight access point?
A. debug dot11
B. show arp switch
C. show client detailed
D. show exclusionlist
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement applies to TKIP?
A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key
B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session
C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions
D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz
maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?
A. 16 dBm
B. 17 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco
WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750
wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux
does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band?
A. Complimentary Code Keying
B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying
C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior
controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM.
What is the next step the AP performs?
A. DHCP option 43.
B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain.
C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a
Cisco WLC?
A. AP priming
B. defining a master controller
C. DHCP Option 6
D. DHCP Option 43
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
What unit of measurement is used to represent the strength of an antenna’s radiation pattern?
A. dBi
B. dBm
C. mW
D. GHz
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which physical layer encoding technology is common to both the IEEE 802.11g and the IEEE 802.11a
standards?
A. BPSK
B. CCK
C. DSSS
D. OFDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet
mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1?
A. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
B. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
C. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
D. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1E. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
F. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
A controller-based wireless solution can avoid interference by dynamically adjusting, what two access
point transmission characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. operating RF channel
B. SSID names
C. transmit power levels
D. switch port parameters
E. antenna gain
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.)
A. antenna bandwidth
B. antenna gain
C. cable loss
D. receiver sensitivity
E. SSID
F. transmission power
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 36
Which statement best represents the authorization aspect of AAA?
A. Authorization takes place after a successful authentication and provides the Cisco WLC the information
needed to allow client access to network resources.
B. Authorization is the validation of successful DHCP address delivery to the wireless client.
C. Authorization must be successfully completed in order to proceed with the authentication phase.
D. Successful authorization will provide encryption keys that will be used to secure the wireless
communications between client and AP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers?
A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
C. Narrow Band Frequency
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Correct Answer:D

DQUESTION 38
Which two statements best describe LWAPP? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco proprietary
B. communication between the AP and client
C. communication between the AP and the WLC
D. Lightweight Access Point provisioning
E. used to encrypt control and data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 39
What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different
propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of
objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
What three roles are defined by 802.1X? (Choose three.)
A. AAA Server
B. Authenticatee
C. Authenticator
D. Authentication Server
E. Supplicant
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 41
Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. War Driving
D. Man-in-the-Middle
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 42
Which two tasks does RRM routinely perform? (Choose two.)
A. antenna selection
B. AP address assignment
C. channel assignment
D. encryption method assignment
E. transmit power control
Correct Answer:CE

CEQUESTION 43
In general, what is the difference in transmit power between an AP operating at Tx Power Level 1 and the
same AP operating at Tx Power Level 3?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB
D. 11 dB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a
local subnet, what is the next step that the AP takes?
A. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller.
B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational.
C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known.
D. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 45
Why are wireless analog video signals that are operating in the 2.4-GHz band particularly harmful to Wi-Fi
service?
A. Analog video is a strong signal and increases the SNR.
B. Analog video is a constant signal with 100% duty cycle.
C. Analog video signals are slow frequency hopping and tend to affect the entire band.
D. Analog Video modulation is the same as Wi-Fi and causes interference.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
What security benefit is enabled by using Management Frame Protection?
A. Provides encryption of administrator sessions between a wireless client and a wireless LAN controller.
B. Protects the network infrastructure from denial-of-service attacks that attempt to flood the network with
associations and probes.
C. Prevents the formation of client ad hoc networks within the RF coverage domain.
D. Detects network reconnaissance probes, like those used by tools like NetStumbler, that attempt to
discover the wireless network topology.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 47
The corporate network locates all RADIUS servers at the centralized data center for authentication. The
remote offices use access points operating in H-REAP mode using v5.0 code with various local and
central switch WLANs. When a remote office has lost connectivity to the main corporate network due to a
WAN outage, which two statements correctly describe the status of that remote office when H-REAP
access points are operating in standalone mode? (Choose two.)
A. All Cisco APs with 16 MB of RAM or more can operate as standalone H-REAP.
B. All clients will continue association until the respective authentication timers expire.
C. If configured, clients using WPA or WPA2 with PSK and locally switched WLANs will continue to
operate.
D. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using the backup RADIUS server feature.E. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAP-LEAP and
EAP-FAST for up to twenty users.
F. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAPLEAP, EAP-
FAST, EAP-TLS, and EAP-PEAP for up to twenty users.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 48
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
On witch tab on the WLC web interface can the administrator change the AP power level?
A. WLAN
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Wireless
Correct Answer: D

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A. ISE
B. BYOD
C. SAN
D. IOE
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two.)
A. Improve flexibility
B. Facilitates implementation
C. Lowers implementation costs
D. Improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Blocking
D. Listening
E. Disabled
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Application
B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Core Common Services
F. Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 22
What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces operational cost
B. Higher port density
C. Investment protection
D. Consistent operation
E. Improved fault tolerance
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 23
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A. it provides Layer 4-7 services
B. It should never support STP
C. It is the critical point for control and application services
D. It typically provides Layer 2 connectivity from the data center to the core
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 24
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls ?
A. Small
B. Medium
C. Large
D. Extra large
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
A network engineer is attempting to separate routing domains using virtualization technology. What protocol can be configured to perform this task?
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B. VSAN
C. VRF
D. vPC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A network design shows two routers that are directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical connections. There is an OSPF Adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution ensures that interface-down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?
A. Optimized OSPF SPF timers
B. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
C. Automatic protection switching
D. Optimized OSPF LSA timers
E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? (Choose three.)
A. Goals
B. Budget
C. User needs
D. Locations
E. Policies
F. Tasks
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Which two are characteristics of a Lightweight Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. Managed via a central wireless LAN controller
B. Code upgrade performed via a TFTP server
C. CAPWAP tunnels
D. Managed directly via CLI or web interface
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 29
200-310 dumps
Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose two)
A. A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core layer
B. A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access layer
C. B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer
D. B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer
E. A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer
F. B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 30
200-310 dumps
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following
would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Classful routing
B. Scalability
C. Default route origination
D. Multi vendor support
E. Link load balancing
F. Hop count
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 34
Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer switches?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.1x
C. 802.3af
D. 802.3q
E. 802.11n
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN design?
A. Roaming between APs
B. RADIUS user authentication
C. Radio resource management
D. accelerated data transfer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Provides information about directly connected Cisco devices
B. Provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C. Combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D. Part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two.)
A. ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization
B. ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization
C. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR
D. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR
E. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. Floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. Bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum path
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols would they use to gain
insight into the network and determine the components that require optimization? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. NetFlow
C. ICMP Echo
D. NMAP
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 40
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?
A. Circuit bandwidth
B. Prioritization
C. Security
D. Operational expense
200-310 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Which model of ISR is utilized for the teleworker design profile?
A. Cisco 1900 Series
B. Cisco 1800 Series
C. Cisco 800 Series
D. Cisco 500 Series
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 42
200-310 dumps
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
What are the three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input
B. Perform a traffic analysis
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer\’s existing network
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 45
What are two benefits of the bottom-up design approach? (Choose two.)
A. Allows a quick response to a design request
B. Facilitates design that is based on previous experience
C. Requires little or no notation of actual requirements for implementation
D. Incorporates organizational requirements
E. Provides a broader overview to the organization and the designer
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 46
A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the distribution block?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 48
Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)
A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
B. Fast hellos
C. LSA retransmission interval
D. SPF throttle timers
E. LSA group pacing
200-310 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 49
You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that will use minimal network bandwidth. Which would
satisfy this requirement?
A. RIPv2
B. RIPng
C. OSPF
D. ARP
E. EGP
Correct Answer: C

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TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 200-105 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(12-18)
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
200-105 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port , designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is not the root port. 1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID

Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
200-105 dumps Answer: D,F
Explanation:

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation:
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is connected directly to the Printers. Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are designated ports. Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role. By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.

Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
200-105 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP)
Introduction
VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.

Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring…) configured by default -> A is not correct. To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.
VLANs don’t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the
switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct. We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.

Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
200-105 vce Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1w)
Port States
There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state. RSTP only has 3 port states which are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.
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QUESTION 26
Which of the following must you avoid to ensure your calculation view uses only the calculation engine? (Choose three)
A. Combining SQL and CE Functions
B. Reading from tables in the column store
C. Reading from tables using SELECT statements
D. Joins using SQL
E. DO WHILE loops

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 27
You have created an analytic view and an analytic privilege that filters on 3 attributes:
Sales region = “West”

Sales channel = “Online”, “Retail”

Product category = “Electronics”.
After granting the analytic privilege to a user, what data can the user see?

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following sequences of steps is required before you can create a report on an analytic view using replicated SAP ERP data?
A. Set up replication from ERP ? Create an analytic view ? Create analytic privileges ? Create a business layer
B. Create a business layer ? Set up replication from ERP ? Create an analytic view ? Create analytic privileges
C. Create an analytic view ? Create analytic privileges ? Set up replication from ERP ? Create a business layer
D. Create an analytic view ? Set up replication from ERP ? Create analytic privileges ? Create a business layer

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What does the following SQL statement do?
SELECT SCORE() as SCORE, PRODUCT_NAME, * FROM PRODUCT_ITEMS WHERE CONTAINS(*,’Paper’, FUZZY(0.8)) ORDER BY PRODUCT_NAME
A. It performs a fuzzy search on all columns in the PRODUCT_NAME table for the term ‘Paper’.
B. It performs a fuzzy search count on the number of columns in the PRODUCT_NAME table that contain the term ‘Paper’.
C. It performs a fuzzy search on the PRODUCT_NAME column in the PRODUCT_ITEMS table for the term ‘Paper’.
D. It performs a fuzzy search of all columns in the PRODUCT_ITEMS table for the term ‘Paper’.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
A company wants to use SAP BusinessObjects reporting tools. They cannot use Adobe Flash. They require scheduled, ready-made reports.
Which reporting tool do you recommend? (Choose two)
A. Dashboards
B. Web Intelligence
C. Explorer
D. Crystal Reports
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
You have created SAP HANA information models from replicated SAP ECC data.
How can you compare the data of the replicated tables with the underlying ECC source data? (Choose two)
A. Use the SAP ERP Data Browser (transaction SE16).
B. Use the Catalog node to open table contents.
C. Use transaction IUUC_REPL_CONTENT.
D. Use the Data Provisioning view from the Quick Launch.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 32
A customer wants to report on large amounts of SAP HANA data. The users want to drill from the top aggregation level to the lowest granularity and try different types of graphical representations of the data on the fly.
Which SAP BusinessObjects reporting tool would you recommend?
A. SAP BusinessObjects Dashboards

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QUESTION 1
A new user has implemented an SAP HANA data model.
Which technical user requires select rights on the new user\’s schema?
A. _SYS_REPO
B. _SYS_BIC
C. _SYS_BI
D. _SYS_SECURITY
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are building a calculation view and want to select data from an analytic view. How can you achieve better performance for this requirement?
A. Use CE functions
B. Use SQL statements
C. Use L programming
D. Use table indexing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which connection type is required from the SAP ERP system to SAP HANA to enable CO- PA side by side scenario?
A. HTTP connection
B. JDBC
C. Secondary database connection
D. Remote Function Call
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You want to create a custom attribute in addition to your data model. How can you achieve this?
A. Create the attribute as a calculated attribute within the analytic view.
B. Create the attribute and add it to the appropriate system table manually.
C. Create the attribute as a calculated measure within the attribute view.
D. Create the attribute as a restricted attribute within the calculation view.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In an analytic view, you need two different logical joins from the data foundation to an attribute view. The analytic view
already contains the attribute view but you have to use the attribute view again. To which of the following do you connect the second join?
A. To a shared attribute view
B. To a derived attribute view
C. To a new instance of the attribute view
D. To a copy of the attribute view
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which of the following steps is required for configuring SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)?
A. Define the number of background work processes in SLT.
B. Define an RFC connection from SLT to SAP HANA.
C. Define a DB connection from SLT to the source system.
D. Define the number of jobs to be used for data replication.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
How can you improve the quality of your information model design?
A. Use ?ase?or ?f?statements whenever possible.
B. Use row-based database expressions.
C. Design your views to be reusable.
D. Modularize your views.
E. Avoid duplications in your modeling.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following can you use to implement currency conversion in an information model?
A. A calculated column in a calculation view
B. A restricted column in an analytic view
C. A calculated column in an analytic view
D. A calculated column in an attribute view
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You discover row count discrepancies between source data and SAP HANA information models.
Which of the following can you investigate to find the source of the discrepancies?
A. Client filtering in the Delivery unit view.
B. Joins in information models.
C. Memory leaks.
D. Client filtering in SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT).
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
In an SQLScript calculation view, one variable contains the records that are the result of a SELECT * statement from a
database table with 10 fields. You want to use this variable to populate a new variable with the same result set restricted
to 1 of the 10 fields. Which CE function do you use?
A. CE_COLUMN_TABLE
B. CE_PROJECTION
C. CE_CALC
D. CE_AGGREGATION
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following must you avoid to ensure your calculation view uses only the calculation engine?
A. Combining SQL and CE Functions
B. Reading from tables in the column store
C. Reading from tables using SELECT statements
D. Joins using SQL
E. DO WHILE loops
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following can be grouped when multiple schemas exist in an SAP HANA database?
A. Information models
B. Data tables
C. Packages
D. Users
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When you try to delete an attribute view you receive the error message andquot;One or more objects are dependent
upon this objectandquot;. Which of the following functions can you use to find out which objects depend on this view?
A. History function
B. Auto Documentation function
C. Display XML function
D. Where-Used function
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is used to make hierarchies available to reporting tools?
A. CE Functions
B. MDX
C. SQLScript
D. SQL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
An SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence report throws an SQL error during query execution. Which of the following could you check to resolve the error?
A. The business layer
B. The business view
C. The Web Intelligence report variables
D. The SAP HANA information model
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
Which of the following CE functions can you use to query an analytic view directly?
A. CE_CALC
B. CE_AGGREGATION
C. CE_OLAP_VIEW
D. CE_JOIN_VIEW
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are using SAP Landscape Transformation to replicate data into SAP HANA. Which of the following can you use to define the schema that the replicated data populates?
A. Advanced replication settings (transaction iuuc_repl_content)
B. Change Authoring Schema in the Quick Launch view
C. Data Provisioning in the Quick Launch view
D. Configuration andamp; Monitoring Dashboard (transaction LTR)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You have a table of transactional data with different transaction types. You want to create an analytic view for only one
of the transaction types. How can you ensure that only rows with the required transaction type are displayed in the analytic view?
A. Create an input parameter
B. Create a filter on the table
C. Create a calculated column
D. Create a restricted column
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 26
You want to model customer master data. Which of the following must you select?
A. Filter
B. Table
C. Hierarchy
D. Key attribute

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 27
User A has to set up tables and views in a database schema that is owned by user B. Which of the following privilege must you grant?
A. CREATE ANY to user A
B. REFERENCES to user A
C. CREATE ANY to user B
D. REFERENCES to user B

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
You are experiencing performance problems with SAP BusinessObjects reports based on SAP HANA data.
Which of the following can you do to increase performance?
A. Add only relevant data to the report queries.
B. Avoid aggregation and work on raw data.
C. Merge all relevant data into a consolidated report.
D. Use drill-down or linked reports.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 29
You have to design a report that shows actual, planned, and variance values. How do you implement this requirement if you want to achieve the best performance?
A. Use a calculation view based upon two analytic views using a union.
B. Use a calculation view based upon two analytic views using a join.
C. Use a single source data foundation in the Universe Design Tool and include the two analytic views.
D. Use a multisource-enabled data foundation in the Universe Design Tool for each analytic view.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
Which connectivity combination between MS Excel and SAP HANA provides multidimensional reporting capabilities?
A. ODBO connector via SQL requests to analytic or calculation views
B. ODBC connector via MDX requests to analytic or calculation views
C. ODBO connector via MDX requests to analytic or calculation views
D. ODBO connector via MDX requests to column tables Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following would you use to determine the engines that are used when an information model is queried?
A. SQL plan cache
B. Timeline
C. Explain plan
D. Visualize plan

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 32
Which of the following is a best practice in calculation views?
A. Apply a static filter on a projection node.
B. Combine analytic views with a join node.
C. Change an attribute to a measure.
D. Push calculations down to the attribute views.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
Two attribute views in the same analytic view contain the same column name: the ID from the Customer attribute view and the ID from the Product attribute view. In the output, the system automatically renamed one column to ID_1. You want to indicate that ID_1 originated from the Product attribute view by renaming it to ID_PRODUCT.
Where in the attribute properties of ID_1 can you change this?
A. In the alias label
B. In the label
C. In the alias name
D. In the name

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 34
Where can you reactivate a user after too many invalid logon attempts?
A. In the SQL console
B. In the user specific schema
C. In the INVALID_CONNECT_ATTEMPS view
D. In the user properties

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 35
Which of the following actions must you perform in an SAP HANA system to transport content to another SAP HANA system?
A. Generate and save an export file to a shared directory.
B. Assign the content repository to a transport request.
C. Mass copy the content repository into the other SAP HANA system.
D. Assign the package to a delivery unit.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 36
Which delivered role is mandatory for a system administrator in SAP HANA?
A. SYS_ADMIN
B. CONTENT_ADMIN
C. SAP_ALL
D. IC MODELER

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37
You receive an activation error in a scripted calculation view that uses the following function: CE_PROJECTION(:table1, [“AMOUNT”], ‘”PROD” = A’)
What could be a reason for this error?
A. The filter condition is not set within square brackets.
B. The projection list contains a field that is not specified in the filter condition.
C. The filter condition must be specified inside the projection list.
D. The filter condition contains a field that is not part of the projection list.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 38
You have made modifications to an information model within a delivery unit. You want to export the model to an SAP HANA target system.
In the Schema Mapping dialog, where do you define the target system schema?
A. In the Authorization schema
B. In the Authoring schema
C. In the _SYS_BI schema
D. In the Physical schema

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
In which of the following can you use a FOR loop over your data?
A. Monitoring View
B. Calculation View
C. Analytic View
D. Analytic View

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Which SAP BusinessObjects reporting tool should you use to answer ad-hoc questions and interact with shared information?
A. Crystal Reports
B. Dashboards
C. Explorer
D. WebIntelligence

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
For which SAP HANA data types is a FULLTEXT index created automatically during table creation?

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
100-105 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address. Those two are not going to change. For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another. (Except switches… they don’t change anything) Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of Router 1. Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of Router1’s exiting interface, and making Router2’s interface as the destination MAC address.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
100-105 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP server

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established-
-the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered– before the message can be delivered.
TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 pdf Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. The target’s MAC address is
set to all 0s. ARP Request
Reference:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
100-105 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
100-105 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Answer: E
Explanation:
For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
100-105 exam Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Switches use a separate collision domain for each port, so device A must be a switch. Hubs, however, place all ports in the same collision domain so device B is a hub. Switches reside in layer 2 while hubs are layer 1 devices.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD’s goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.
100-105 dumps

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