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cisco  200-355 exam dumps Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals[Q&As: 504(There are 4 parts in the dump, 504 questions in total.)]-q1-q49

QUESTION 1
What is max power for an AP for all regulatory bodies?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 1
D. X
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How Cisco spectrum analyzer analyse the scanned data?
A. Store scanned data during wifi scan and analyze later.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the deployment that requires least amount of hardware installed on the site?
A. Cloud
B. Converged
C. Centralized
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What command can be used on the WLC to show the logs (or something) for an AP with the name
Cisco_AP?
A. show logging
B. show ap eventlog Cisco_AP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the command used to debug an AP that is not able to join the WLC?
A. debug capwap events enable (on the WLC)
B. debug capwap events enable (on the AP)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are the channels you need to avoid not to have interference with DFS channels? (Choose 3)
A. 52
B. 136
C. 124
D. 161
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
What is required from the deployment when using voice or video applications? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI cell edge of -25B. RSSI cell edge of -16
C. SNR of 25
D. Cell Overlap of 20%
E. RSSI -67
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
What are the sources of interference you will find when conducting a site survery before deployment?
(Choose 3)
A. Bluetooth Headset
B. Microwave Ovens
C. Analog Wireless Camera
D. AdHoc Wireless Camera
E. AdHoc Hotspot
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What are reqs for VoWLAN?
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% overlapping cells
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is SNR needed for 54 Mbps?
A. SNR 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is max level in Cisco WLC TPC for all regulatory domain?
A. 1
B. 8
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Engineer needs an LAP to support few WLANs with different DHCP servers for different SSIDs, how to
fulfill this requirement?
A. configuring dynamic VLAN interfacesto SSIDs in AP group.
B. configure DHCP in AP settings advanced page
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. PlanningCorrect Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% cell overlapping
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP?
A. Wireless
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Monitor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS?
A. TFTP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is
displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.)
A. Authority ID
B. Authority ID Information
C. Client Key
D. PAC
E. Server Key
F. TTL for PAC
G. Monitor Key
H. NTP Source
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 23
Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client
associated with a lightweight access point?
A. debug dot11
B. show arp switch
C. show client detailed
D. show exclusionlist
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement applies to TKIP?
A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key
B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session
C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions
D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz
maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?
A. 16 dBm
B. 17 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 30 dBm
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco
WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750
wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux
does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band?
A. Complimentary Code Keying
B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying
C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior
controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM.
What is the next step the AP performs?
A. DHCP option 43.
B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain.
C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a
Cisco WLC?
A. AP priming
B. defining a master controller
C. DHCP Option 6
D. DHCP Option 43
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
What unit of measurement is used to represent the strength of an antenna’s radiation pattern?
A. dBi
B. dBm
C. mW
D. GHz
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which physical layer encoding technology is common to both the IEEE 802.11g and the IEEE 802.11a
standards?
A. BPSK
B. CCK
C. DSSS
D. OFDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet
mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1?
A. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
B. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
C. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
D. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1E. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
F. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
A controller-based wireless solution can avoid interference by dynamically adjusting, what two access
point transmission characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. operating RF channel
B. SSID names
C. transmit power levels
D. switch port parameters
E. antenna gain
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.)
A. antenna bandwidth
B. antenna gain
C. cable loss
D. receiver sensitivity
E. SSID
F. transmission power
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 36
Which statement best represents the authorization aspect of AAA?
A. Authorization takes place after a successful authentication and provides the Cisco WLC the information
needed to allow client access to network resources.
B. Authorization is the validation of successful DHCP address delivery to the wireless client.
C. Authorization must be successfully completed in order to proceed with the authentication phase.
D. Successful authorization will provide encryption keys that will be used to secure the wireless
communications between client and AP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers?
A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
C. Narrow Band Frequency
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Correct Answer:D

DQUESTION 38
Which two statements best describe LWAPP? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco proprietary
B. communication between the AP and client
C. communication between the AP and the WLC
D. Lightweight Access Point provisioning
E. used to encrypt control and data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 39
What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different
propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of
objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
What three roles are defined by 802.1X? (Choose three.)
A. AAA Server
B. Authenticatee
C. Authenticator
D. Authentication Server
E. Supplicant
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 41
Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. War Driving
D. Man-in-the-Middle
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 42
Which two tasks does RRM routinely perform? (Choose two.)
A. antenna selection
B. AP address assignment
C. channel assignment
D. encryption method assignment
E. transmit power control
Correct Answer:CE

CEQUESTION 43
In general, what is the difference in transmit power between an AP operating at Tx Power Level 1 and the
same AP operating at Tx Power Level 3?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 6 dB
D. 11 dB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a
local subnet, what is the next step that the AP takes?
A. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller.
B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational.
C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known.
D. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 45
Why are wireless analog video signals that are operating in the 2.4-GHz band particularly harmful to Wi-Fi
service?
A. Analog video is a strong signal and increases the SNR.
B. Analog video is a constant signal with 100% duty cycle.
C. Analog video signals are slow frequency hopping and tend to affect the entire band.
D. Analog Video modulation is the same as Wi-Fi and causes interference.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
What security benefit is enabled by using Management Frame Protection?
A. Provides encryption of administrator sessions between a wireless client and a wireless LAN controller.
B. Protects the network infrastructure from denial-of-service attacks that attempt to flood the network with
associations and probes.
C. Prevents the formation of client ad hoc networks within the RF coverage domain.
D. Detects network reconnaissance probes, like those used by tools like NetStumbler, that attempt to
discover the wireless network topology.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 47
The corporate network locates all RADIUS servers at the centralized data center for authentication. The
remote offices use access points operating in H-REAP mode using v5.0 code with various local and
central switch WLANs. When a remote office has lost connectivity to the main corporate network due to a
WAN outage, which two statements correctly describe the status of that remote office when H-REAP
access points are operating in standalone mode? (Choose two.)
A. All Cisco APs with 16 MB of RAM or more can operate as standalone H-REAP.
B. All clients will continue association until the respective authentication timers expire.
C. If configured, clients using WPA or WPA2 with PSK and locally switched WLANs will continue to
operate.
D. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using the backup RADIUS server feature.E. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAP-LEAP and
EAP-FAST for up to twenty users.
F. If configured, locally switched WLANs will continue operation using Local-EAP for EAPLEAP, EAP-
FAST, EAP-TLS, and EAP-PEAP for up to twenty users.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 48
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 49
On witch tab on the WLC web interface can the administrator change the AP power level?
A. WLAN
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Wireless
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 18
What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to access enterprise data and systems?
A. ISE
B. BYOD
C. SAN
D. IOE
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two.)
A. Improve flexibility
B. Facilitates implementation
C. Lowers implementation costs
D. Improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Blocking
D. Listening
E. Disabled
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three.)
A. Application
B. Physical Infrastructure
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Core Common Services
F. Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 22
What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces operational cost
B. Higher port density
C. Investment protection
D. Consistent operation
E. Improved fault tolerance
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 23
Which two statements about the Enterprise Data Center Aggregation submodule are correct? (Choose two.)
A. it provides Layer 4-7 services
B. It should never support STP
C. It is the critical point for control and application services
D. It typically provides Layer 2 connectivity from the data center to the core
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 24
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates ASA firewalls ?
A. Small
B. Medium
C. Large
D. Extra large
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
A network engineer is attempting to separate routing domains using virtualization technology. What protocol can be configured to perform this task?
A. VLAN
B. VSAN
C. VRF
D. vPC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A network design shows two routers that are directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical connections. There is an OSPF Adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution ensures that interface-down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?
A. Optimized OSPF SPF timers
B. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
C. Automatic protection switching
D. Optimized OSPF LSA timers
E. Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? (Choose three.)
A. Goals
B. Budget
C. User needs
D. Locations
E. Policies
F. Tasks
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
Which two are characteristics of a Lightweight Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. Managed via a central wireless LAN controller
B. Code upgrade performed via a TFTP server
C. CAPWAP tunnels
D. Managed directly via CLI or web interface
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 29
200-310 dumps
Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose two)
A. A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core layer
B. A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access layer
C. B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer
D. B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer
E. A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer
F. B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 30
200-310 dumps
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following
would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
200-310 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Classful routing
B. Scalability
C. Default route origination
D. Multi vendor support
E. Link load balancing
F. Hop count
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 34
Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer switches?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.1x
C. 802.3af
D. 802.3q
E. 802.11n
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN design?
A. Roaming between APs
B. RADIUS user authentication
C. Radio resource management
D. accelerated data transfer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. Provides information about directly connected Cisco devices
B. Provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C. Combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D. Part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two.)
A. ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization
B. ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization
C. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR
D. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR
E. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. Floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. Bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum path
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols would they use to gain
insight into the network and determine the components that require optimization? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. NetFlow
C. ICMP Echo
D. NMAP
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 40
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?
A. Circuit bandwidth
B. Prioritization
C. Security
D. Operational expense
200-310 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Which model of ISR is utilized for the teleworker design profile?
A. Cisco 1900 Series
B. Cisco 1800 Series
C. Cisco 800 Series
D. Cisco 500 Series
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 42
200-310 dumps
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
200-310 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 43
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 44
What are the three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three.)
A. Use organizational input
B. Perform a traffic analysis
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer\’s existing network
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 45
What are two benefits of the bottom-up design approach? (Choose two.)
A. Allows a quick response to a design request
B. Facilitates design that is based on previous experience
C. Requires little or no notation of actual requirements for implementation
D. Incorporates organizational requirements
E. Provides a broader overview to the organization and the designer
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 46
A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the distribution block?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 48
Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)
A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
B. Fast hellos
C. LSA retransmission interval
D. SPF throttle timers
E. LSA group pacing
200-310 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 49
You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that will use minimal network bandwidth. Which would
satisfy this requirement?
A. RIPv2
B. RIPng
C. OSPF
D. ARP
E. EGP
Correct Answer: C

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Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
200-105 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port , designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is not the root port. 1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID

Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
200-105 dumps Answer: D,F
Explanation:

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit
200-105 dumps
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation:
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is connected directly to the Printers. Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are designated ports. Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role. By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.

Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
200-105 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP)
Introduction
VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst series products.

Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
By default, all ports on a new switch belong to VLAN 1 (default & native VLAN). There are also some well-known VLANs (for example: VLAN 1002 for fddi-default; VLAN 1003 for token-ring…) configured by default -> A is not correct. To communicate between two different VLANs we need to use a Layer 3 device like router or Layer 3 switch -> B is correct.
VLANs don’t affect the number of collision domains, they are the same -> C is not correct. Typically, VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains.We must use a different network (or sub-network) for each VLAN. For example we can use 192.168.1.0/24 for VLAN 1, 192.168.2.0/24 for VLAN 2 -> D is correct. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN so that it can send frame to ports on the same VLAN only. For example, if a PC in VLAN 2 sends a frame then the
switch look-ups its bridging table and only sends frame out of its ports which belong to VLAN 2 (it also sends this frame on trunk ports) -> E is correct. We can use multiple switches to expand VLAN -> F is not correct.

Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
200-105 vce Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Understanding Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1w)
Port States
There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state. RSTP only has 3 port states which are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding.
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QUESTION 26
Which of the following must you avoid to ensure your calculation view uses only the calculation engine? (Choose three)
A. Combining SQL and CE Functions
B. Reading from tables in the column store
C. Reading from tables using SELECT statements
D. Joins using SQL
E. DO WHILE loops

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 27
You have created an analytic view and an analytic privilege that filters on 3 attributes:
Sales region = “West”

Sales channel = “Online”, “Retail”

Product category = “Electronics”.
After granting the analytic privilege to a user, what data can the user see?

A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following sequences of steps is required before you can create a report on an analytic view using replicated SAP ERP data?
A. Set up replication from ERP ? Create an analytic view ? Create analytic privileges ? Create a business layer
B. Create a business layer ? Set up replication from ERP ? Create an analytic view ? Create analytic privileges
C. Create an analytic view ? Create analytic privileges ? Set up replication from ERP ? Create a business layer
D. Create an analytic view ? Set up replication from ERP ? Create analytic privileges ? Create a business layer

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
What does the following SQL statement do?
SELECT SCORE() as SCORE, PRODUCT_NAME, * FROM PRODUCT_ITEMS WHERE CONTAINS(*,’Paper’, FUZZY(0.8)) ORDER BY PRODUCT_NAME
A. It performs a fuzzy search on all columns in the PRODUCT_NAME table for the term ‘Paper’.
B. It performs a fuzzy search count on the number of columns in the PRODUCT_NAME table that contain the term ‘Paper’.
C. It performs a fuzzy search on the PRODUCT_NAME column in the PRODUCT_ITEMS table for the term ‘Paper’.
D. It performs a fuzzy search of all columns in the PRODUCT_ITEMS table for the term ‘Paper’.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
A company wants to use SAP BusinessObjects reporting tools. They cannot use Adobe Flash. They require scheduled, ready-made reports.
Which reporting tool do you recommend? (Choose two)
A. Dashboards
B. Web Intelligence
C. Explorer
D. Crystal Reports
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
You have created SAP HANA information models from replicated SAP ECC data.
How can you compare the data of the replicated tables with the underlying ECC source data? (Choose two)
A. Use the SAP ERP Data Browser (transaction SE16).
B. Use the Catalog node to open table contents.
C. Use transaction IUUC_REPL_CONTENT.
D. Use the Data Provisioning view from the Quick Launch.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 32
A customer wants to report on large amounts of SAP HANA data. The users want to drill from the top aggregation level to the lowest granularity and try different types of graphical representations of the data on the fly.
Which SAP BusinessObjects reporting tool would you recommend?
A. SAP BusinessObjects Dashboards

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QUESTION 1
A new user has implemented an SAP HANA data model.
Which technical user requires select rights on the new user\’s schema?
A. _SYS_REPO
B. _SYS_BIC
C. _SYS_BI
D. _SYS_SECURITY
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are building a calculation view and want to select data from an analytic view. How can you achieve better performance for this requirement?
A. Use CE functions
B. Use SQL statements
C. Use L programming
D. Use table indexing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which connection type is required from the SAP ERP system to SAP HANA to enable CO- PA side by side scenario?
A. HTTP connection
B. JDBC
C. Secondary database connection
D. Remote Function Call
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You want to create a custom attribute in addition to your data model. How can you achieve this?
A. Create the attribute as a calculated attribute within the analytic view.
B. Create the attribute and add it to the appropriate system table manually.
C. Create the attribute as a calculated measure within the attribute view.
D. Create the attribute as a restricted attribute within the calculation view.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In an analytic view, you need two different logical joins from the data foundation to an attribute view. The analytic view
already contains the attribute view but you have to use the attribute view again. To which of the following do you connect the second join?
A. To a shared attribute view
B. To a derived attribute view
C. To a new instance of the attribute view
D. To a copy of the attribute view
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which of the following steps is required for configuring SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)?
A. Define the number of background work processes in SLT.
B. Define an RFC connection from SLT to SAP HANA.
C. Define a DB connection from SLT to the source system.
D. Define the number of jobs to be used for data replication.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
How can you improve the quality of your information model design?
A. Use ?ase?or ?f?statements whenever possible.
B. Use row-based database expressions.
C. Design your views to be reusable.
D. Modularize your views.
E. Avoid duplications in your modeling.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following can you use to implement currency conversion in an information model?
A. A calculated column in a calculation view
B. A restricted column in an analytic view
C. A calculated column in an analytic view
D. A calculated column in an attribute view
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You discover row count discrepancies between source data and SAP HANA information models.
Which of the following can you investigate to find the source of the discrepancies?
A. Client filtering in the Delivery unit view.
B. Joins in information models.
C. Memory leaks.
D. Client filtering in SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT).
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
In an SQLScript calculation view, one variable contains the records that are the result of a SELECT * statement from a
database table with 10 fields. You want to use this variable to populate a new variable with the same result set restricted
to 1 of the 10 fields. Which CE function do you use?
A. CE_COLUMN_TABLE
B. CE_PROJECTION
C. CE_CALC
D. CE_AGGREGATION
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following must you avoid to ensure your calculation view uses only the calculation engine?
A. Combining SQL and CE Functions
B. Reading from tables in the column store
C. Reading from tables using SELECT statements
D. Joins using SQL
E. DO WHILE loops
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following can be grouped when multiple schemas exist in an SAP HANA database?
A. Information models
B. Data tables
C. Packages
D. Users
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When you try to delete an attribute view you receive the error message andquot;One or more objects are dependent
upon this objectandquot;. Which of the following functions can you use to find out which objects depend on this view?
A. History function
B. Auto Documentation function
C. Display XML function
D. Where-Used function
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is used to make hierarchies available to reporting tools?
A. CE Functions
B. MDX
C. SQLScript
D. SQL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
An SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence report throws an SQL error during query execution. Which of the following could you check to resolve the error?
A. The business layer
B. The business view
C. The Web Intelligence report variables
D. The SAP HANA information model
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
Which of the following CE functions can you use to query an analytic view directly?
A. CE_CALC
B. CE_AGGREGATION
C. CE_OLAP_VIEW
D. CE_JOIN_VIEW
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are using SAP Landscape Transformation to replicate data into SAP HANA. Which of the following can you use to define the schema that the replicated data populates?
A. Advanced replication settings (transaction iuuc_repl_content)
B. Change Authoring Schema in the Quick Launch view
C. Data Provisioning in the Quick Launch view
D. Configuration andamp; Monitoring Dashboard (transaction LTR)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You have a table of transactional data with different transaction types. You want to create an analytic view for only one
of the transaction types. How can you ensure that only rows with the required transaction type are displayed in the analytic view?
A. Create an input parameter
B. Create a filter on the table
C. Create a calculated column
D. Create a restricted column
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 26
You want to model customer master data. Which of the following must you select?
A. Filter
B. Table
C. Hierarchy
D. Key attribute

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 27
User A has to set up tables and views in a database schema that is owned by user B. Which of the following privilege must you grant?
A. CREATE ANY to user A
B. REFERENCES to user A
C. CREATE ANY to user B
D. REFERENCES to user B

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
You are experiencing performance problems with SAP BusinessObjects reports based on SAP HANA data.
Which of the following can you do to increase performance?
A. Add only relevant data to the report queries.
B. Avoid aggregation and work on raw data.
C. Merge all relevant data into a consolidated report.
D. Use drill-down or linked reports.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 29
You have to design a report that shows actual, planned, and variance values. How do you implement this requirement if you want to achieve the best performance?
A. Use a calculation view based upon two analytic views using a union.
B. Use a calculation view based upon two analytic views using a join.
C. Use a single source data foundation in the Universe Design Tool and include the two analytic views.
D. Use a multisource-enabled data foundation in the Universe Design Tool for each analytic view.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
Which connectivity combination between MS Excel and SAP HANA provides multidimensional reporting capabilities?
A. ODBO connector via SQL requests to analytic or calculation views
B. ODBC connector via MDX requests to analytic or calculation views
C. ODBO connector via MDX requests to analytic or calculation views
D. ODBO connector via MDX requests to column tables Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
Which of the following would you use to determine the engines that are used when an information model is queried?
A. SQL plan cache
B. Timeline
C. Explain plan
D. Visualize plan

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 32
Which of the following is a best practice in calculation views?
A. Apply a static filter on a projection node.
B. Combine analytic views with a join node.
C. Change an attribute to a measure.
D. Push calculations down to the attribute views.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
Two attribute views in the same analytic view contain the same column name: the ID from the Customer attribute view and the ID from the Product attribute view. In the output, the system automatically renamed one column to ID_1. You want to indicate that ID_1 originated from the Product attribute view by renaming it to ID_PRODUCT.
Where in the attribute properties of ID_1 can you change this?
A. In the alias label
B. In the label
C. In the alias name
D. In the name

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 34
Where can you reactivate a user after too many invalid logon attempts?
A. In the SQL console
B. In the user specific schema
C. In the INVALID_CONNECT_ATTEMPS view
D. In the user properties

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 35
Which of the following actions must you perform in an SAP HANA system to transport content to another SAP HANA system?
A. Generate and save an export file to a shared directory.
B. Assign the content repository to a transport request.
C. Mass copy the content repository into the other SAP HANA system.
D. Assign the package to a delivery unit.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 36
Which delivered role is mandatory for a system administrator in SAP HANA?
A. SYS_ADMIN
B. CONTENT_ADMIN
C. SAP_ALL
D. IC MODELER

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37
You receive an activation error in a scripted calculation view that uses the following function: CE_PROJECTION(:table1, [“AMOUNT”], ‘”PROD” = A’)
What could be a reason for this error?
A. The filter condition is not set within square brackets.
B. The projection list contains a field that is not specified in the filter condition.
C. The filter condition must be specified inside the projection list.
D. The filter condition contains a field that is not part of the projection list.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 38
You have made modifications to an information model within a delivery unit. You want to export the model to an SAP HANA target system.
In the Schema Mapping dialog, where do you define the target system schema?
A. In the Authorization schema
B. In the Authoring schema
C. In the _SYS_BI schema
D. In the Physical schema

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 39
In which of the following can you use a FOR loop over your data?
A. Monitoring View
B. Calculation View
C. Analytic View
D. Analytic View

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Which SAP BusinessObjects reporting tool should you use to answer ad-hoc questions and interact with shared information?
A. Crystal Reports
B. Dashboards
C. Explorer
D. WebIntelligence

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 41
For which SAP HANA data types is a FULLTEXT index created automatically during table creation?

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But now the MCSE is no longer the previous Microsoft certification System engineer MCSE (full name Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer), but further extended to “Microsoft Certified Solution experts.” In 2012, the Microsoft Certification examination system was fully upgraded. The key to the change in Microsoft’s certificate system is not the name of the certificate, the emphasis is no longer an examination of a certificate, but back to the original need to pass a number of examinations in order to get the corresponding certificate, in addition to learn from other IT certification system advantages, to increase the certification test mechanism to ensure that technology and knowledge with the times. This will make it easier for the industry to understand the ability and value of the candidates more clearly.

MCSE certification is intended for IT Professional who need to validate their skills and knowledge necessary for designing, deploying and managing a Windows Server 2012 desktop infrastructure including the application environment, application virtualization, security, business continuity and remote desktop services necessary. Candidate’s should have experience with previous Windows Server Operating systems and have their Windows 2012 Server certification (MCSA) or equivalent skills.

Update on this: Microsoft has brought in new professional MCSE. Certification Requirements pass the five exam and are available in eight areas of expertise: Desktop infrastructure, server infrastructure, SharePoint, business intelligence, communications, private cloud, data platform, and messaging. Certification requires passing scores on five exams and are available in eight specialty areas:desktop, infrastructure Ver infrastructure, SharePoint, business intelligence, communication, private cloud, data platform and messaging.

MCSE

Although there is no time limit for preparing these exams, it is usually not possible to complete them in a short period of time. The preparation of all five MCSE certification exams may take months or even years, depending on individual learning speed and professional experience. For example, an individual who has completed a 4-year degree course in the fields of computer science, information technology or networking and who has gained years of on-the-job experience may find that he or she does not need to spend too much time learning as a person with limited training. Typically, Microsoft recommends that individuals have at least two years of experience configuring, installing, designing, and troubleshooting networks, operating systems, and servers before attempting to take the certification exams.

Regardless of your motivation for MCSE certification, there is a problem that remains unchanged: can you pass your exams by studying for yourself or if you need to receive professional training? Countless IT pros are having this problem when they’re preparing for Microsoft MCSE exams. Unfortunately, there is no simple answer. What’s right for you? Some people can read through a learning guide. Others need more time, read and reread learning guides, consult online brain dumps and use practice tests. Then some people learn better through professional training and classroom teaching. Ultimately, everyone has to make a decision based on their personal preferences and their learning style. If you are unsure which preparation method is best for you, consider the following questions.

MCSE

How much time do you have?
If it is Monday and you are testing in Friday, you may not have time to schedule a training course and should consider rearranging your tests. Also, please consider the quality of your real commitment to learning. If you have little free time, self-study may be a bad choice. MCSE exams take a few hours of study time, and if you don’t have the time, the training course can be invaluable. Most courses run 3-4 days a day, 8 hours a day. This 24-32-hour study is very helpful for those busy schedules.

How much money can you spend?
Let us face the reality, money is always an object. The cost of each MCSE examination is 115 dollars. The Learning Guide can run anywhere from 20 dollars to more than 100 dollars. The Practice test for a complete set of tests can be 100 to 2,000 dollars, and the training course is usually 1,000 to 2,000 dollars per course. If you can’t take out the training money, self-study is your only option.

The time required to complete the MCSE certification will depend on your past experience and preparation, so that you have the opportunity to develop this extremely important certification program. For example, if you lack basic knowledge about Windows or SWL servers, it may take a long time to complete the MCSE course. As far as I am concerned, the best way is to pass the relevant exam questions first. I chose the pass4itsure. This site provides the latest topics, real test simulation software and so on, so that I have more authentic experience test feeling. Then combine the exam simulation with pass4itsure MCSE2003 Messaging dumps to study together. If you don’t have brain dumps, you don’t know what they’re going to be asking questions. I strongly recommend that you do not only brain dumps, but also with pass4itsure test simulation software. Because then you only know the test problem and you don’t actually know the material. But the simulation software fills the gap. I believe that through virtual and online training, your study has no boundaries.

Learning Resources
Microsoft has provided a training course for classroom face-to-face and some subjects, including Microsoft Virtual College, Academy, which offers courses, but is basically related to the subject of the certification, no test video of specific words. I found a lot of specific word videos on pass4itusre YouTube channel. Of course I downloaded the pass4itsure free PDF to see the latest exam topics. If I have a lot of free time, I will choose to see the PDF file. If no time, such as drinking a cup of coffee tee in the afternoon,I can open YouTube directly to watch the video, it is also very convenient.

Textbook Materials
Pass4itsure provides a wealth of Microsoft certification materials, such as Microsoft’s Trainingkit series, Examref series, Trainingguide series, MOC series and so on. According to the catalogue to find the appropriate test questions and pass4itsure has a 15% discount activity recently. 15% discount on the price is very cost-effective.

Certification can improve the value of your resume and contribute to an exciting and well-paid it career. You can easily prepare for the Microsoft Global Certification exam with pass4itsure and build a rich it career. Develop real-world application skills by hands-on lab practice, learning in an intensive training environment.
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Pass an examination in the following selected subjects 70-473, 70-475, 70-464, 70-465, 70-466, 70-467

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Pass an examination in the following selected subjects 70-695, 70-696, 70-398

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Exam Number: 70-342
Certificate: MCSE2003 Messaging
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Type of technology: Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 Career direction: Developer

You can choose from these list of exams from pass4itsure, or you can build it yourself from a random selection of questions in a test item. The 70-342 exams are designed for candidates, who are responsible for the Exchange messaging environment in the enterprise environment. Their senior management as a team administrator of the technology leadership. These candidates are the support of the recipient administrator and Exchange Server system administrator for communication between the third level. They should have a minimum of three years experience managing, deploying, managing, monitoring, upgrading, migrating and designing Exchange servers.

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[2018 New Version] Discount Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 Exam PDF-Answers Q&As Are Based On The Real Exam Video Study 347Q Full Version Offer 1-13

How to win with 100-105 dumps? The Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) (ICND1) exam (100-105) is a 90-minute assessment with 45-55 questions, which is required for Cisco CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless certification. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

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Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) is a multiple choice dumps that must be completed within 90 minutes. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
100-105 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address. Those two are not going to change. For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another. (Except switches… they don’t change anything) Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of Router 1. Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of Router1’s exiting interface, and making Router2’s interface as the destination MAC address.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
100-105 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP server

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established-
-the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered– before the message can be delivered.
TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 pdf Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. The target’s MAC address is
set to all 0s. ARP Request
Reference:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
100-105 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
100-105 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Answer: E
Explanation:
For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
100-105 exam Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Switches use a separate collision domain for each port, so device A must be a switch. Hubs, however, place all ports in the same collision domain so device B is a hub. Switches reside in layer 2 while hubs are layer 1 devices.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD’s goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.
100-105 dumps

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How to win with 700-802 dumps? The IoT Manufacturing Account Manager exam (700-802) is a assessment with 35 questions, which is required for Cisco certification. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-802.html dumps computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of IoT Manufacturing Account Manager.

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Pass4itsure Cisco 700-802 dumps IoT Manufacturing Account Manager is a multiple choice dumps that must be completed. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.

TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 700-802 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(1-20)

QUESTION 1
What does Cisco Connected Factory Wireless primarily help customers to do?
A. Budget money.
B. Save money.
C. Make money.
D. Be safer.
700-802 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are the three horizontal Cisco Internet of Things solutions in manufacturing? (Choose three.)
A. connected factory applications
B. routers
C. connected factory security
D. device connectors
E. converged network platforms
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
What does Cisco Connected Factory Security primarily help customers to do?
A. Make money.
B. Save money.
C. Be safer.
D. Budget money.
700-802 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In which zone does Cisco Connected Factory Security help to protect the manufacturing environment?
A. logistics network
B. danger zone
C. area control zone
D. demilitarized zone
E. enterprise business applications zone
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which three challenges did the company have in the auto manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. reduce spending
B. increase factory security
C. streamline manufacturing workflow
D. implement real-time monitoring
E. deploy mobile-enabled workforce
700-802 pdf Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which four levels of solutions does the Cisco Internet of Things product structure consist of? (Choose four.)
A. sensors
B. deployment support
C. products (such as, plant switching and plant routing)
D. network management (SDN) and Internet of Things security
E. PaaS, JouleX, Connected Operations
F. fog computing (lOx)
Correct Answer: ACDF

QUESTION 7
Which two outcomes are realized with Cisco Connected Factory Energy Management? (Choose two.)
A. granular real-time visibility on energy usage
B. reduced downtime
C. reduced energy usage
D. increased productivity
700-802 vce Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which four people are important decision-makers in the manufacturing environment? (Choose four.)
A. Director of Marketing
B. Automation Controls Director
C. Plant Engineering Manager
D. Plant IT Director
E. Safety Director
F. Executive Director
G. Facilities Manager
Correct Answer: BCDG

QUESTION 9
Which two things does Cisco Connected Factory Automation primarily help customers to do? (Choose two.)
A. Budget money
B. Be safer
C. Make money
D. Save money
700-802 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which three options are reasons why partners prefer working with Cisco? (Choose three.)
A. the large size of the Cisco organization
B. R and D and innovation for future-proof technology
C. unique capabilities with global reach and holistic solutions
D. partner integration for the best of IT and OT
E. Cisco partners receive little to no support
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
Cost reduction is an important success metric for Automation Controls Directors. In the Internet of Things,
which four options achieve cost reduction? (Choose four.)
A. decreased downtime
B. increased operational equipment effectiveness from 65% to 89%
C. improved quality
D. increased throughput
E. improved uptime
F. improved safety
700-802 dumps Correct Answer: BCDE

QUESTION 12
Connected factory applications are enabled with strategic partnerships. Which four options help to deploy these applications? (Choose four.)
A. Rockwell Automation
B. SAP
C. Librestream
D. AeroScout
E. Google IBM
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 13
At the highest level, what does Cisco Connected Factory Wireless enable everyone in a plant to access?
A. enterprise and internet resources
B. factory floor data
C. Facebook
D. data management applications
700-802 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three benefits were realized as a result of the Cisco Internet of Things solution in the tractor manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. improved production accuracy by 23%
B. integrated, continuous real-time views of manufacturing process
C. reduced cycle-times by 99%
D. reduced cycle-time by 40%
E. reduced overtime that results from efficient replenishment
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 15
Which option is an important benefit of converged network platforms that enables other benefits?
A. increased productivity
B. real-time visibility
C. reduced downtime
D. safer environment
700-802 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which four options are overarching categories of physical hardware within the product structure? (Choose four.)
A. plant routing
B. JouleX
C. field network
D. plant switching
E. IP cameras
F. connected safety and security
Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 17
Which three solution elements were deployed in the tractor manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. IP cameras
B. AeroScout T2 tags
C. mounted exciters
D. MobileView software
E. RockWell automation
700-802 exam Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 18
The Internet of Things is described as the driver for the fourth industrial revolution. Which three options are
important drivers of this revolution? (Choose three.)
A. Manufacturers are consolidating factories.
B. Factories are growing off-shore.
C. Companies are moving toward robotic advancements.
D. Companies are turning toward Ethernet.
E. Manufacturers are moving to big data for answers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 19
Specific company characteristics signal opportunities to sell the Cisco Internet of Things. Which three
characteristics indicate such an opportunity? (Choose three.)
A. security concerns
B. a slow-moving company
C. an IT preference for Cisco
D. a focus on green energy_______________________
E. a move to wireless manufacturing, Ethernet I/O, predictive maintenance, or other new models
700-802 dumps Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 20
Which three challenges did the company face in the motorcycle manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. deploy wireless for instant visibility
B. accelerate new product introduction
C. implement flexible manufacturing
D. reduce plant downtime
E. reduce product theft
Correct Answer: ABC

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TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 700-505 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(1-36)

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco service is targeted for customers that want proactive monitoring?
A. SMARTnet
B. Small Business Support Service
C. SmartCare
D. Collaborative Professional Services
700-505 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. end-to-end optimization
B. seamless installation
C. scalability without complexity
D. embedded self service
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or prospective customers? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Meraki roadshow
B. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees IE
C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program
D. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager
E. Free product trials
F. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
Which wireless products can be implemented as stand-alone or as a cluster of APs?
A. Cisco 110/300/500 Series
B. Cisco WLC 2500/SRE
C. Cisco 2600/3600 Series
D. Cisco 700/1600 Series
E. Cisco Meraki MR Series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical details to help
differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?
A. Cisco Commerce Workspace
B. Competitive Portal
C. Quick Product Reference Guide
D. Cisco Discovery Service
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?
A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.
B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default.
C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the LAN or across the WAN.
D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which incentive program gives an up-front discount to partners with registered opportunities?
A. Cisco Partner Incentive Program
B. Value Incentive Program
C. Solution Incentive Program
D. Opportunity Incentive Program
700-505 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three.)
A. validates business decisions
B. protects revenue streams
C. reduces maintenance and network operation costs
D. increases business resilience
E. enhances career paths
F. promotes independence
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Catalyst model should you recommend to a customer that is considered a bargain buyer?
A. 2960
B. 3750
C. 300
D. 1900
700-505 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy services on demand? (Choose two.)
A. 3900 Series
B. 2900 Series
C. 2800 Series
D. 800 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsize business? (Choose two.)
A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint
B. Cisco MX200
C. Cisco VCS
D. Cisco Profile 42
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)
A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility
B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff
C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools
D. by providing a complex borderless solution
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which three options are characteristics of the Cisco EX-60 Series? (Choose three.)
A. Screen resolution 1920×1080
B. Cisco PrecisionHDTM Camera
C. high-quality 24-inch screen
D. high-quality 21.5-inch screen
E. Can use any USB-connected camera.
F. Screen resolution 600×800
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 14
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User interface are unified
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which four product categories have Cisco Meraki cloud-managed offerings? (Choose four.)
A. IP telephones
B. Cisco Telepresence
C. Mobile device management
D. Switches
E. Security appliances
F. Servers
G. Storage
H. Wireless access points
700-505 vce Correct Answer: CDEH

QUESTION 16
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP8021w
B. Universal PoE
C. medianet
D. Flexible NetFlow
E. Multiprotocol Label Switching
F. Gigabit Ethernet
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about Collaborative Services are true?
A. Cisco sells the service to the partner
B. They are sold by the partner, and are delivered by Cisco.
C. They enable the partner to deliver their own brand of service.
D. They are sold to the customer by Cisco.
700-505 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires high-quality video for full multimedia applications. Which two Cisco
Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. 8900 Series
B. 9900 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 5900 Series
E. 6900 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which statement about TrustSec is true?
A. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.
B. It provides a policy-based, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services to make context-aware access control decisions.
C. It provides secure rich-media and collaboration services to optimize real-time voice and video applications.
D. It provides defense against denial of service attacks.
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which step in solving customer problems is focused on the careful and purposeful integration of products, technologies, services, and management across solutions?
A. Solution
B. Architectural solution
C. Product
D. System
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? (Choose two)
A. simple devices that work well together right out of the box
B. enterprise-grade functionality; complexity is not a concern
C. flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future D. solutions that will increase employee morale
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 22
Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless Network? (Choose
two.)
A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.
B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases
C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve
D. All potential failures will be eliminated.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 23
Which four customer needs do Cisco architectures help solve? (Choose four.)
A. eliminate redundancy
B. guarantee business outcomes
C. increase ROI
D. reduce independence
E. provide reliability
F. slow staff growth
G. lower costs
H. boost productivity
700-505 vce Correct Answer: CEGH

QUESTION 24
Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?
A. It features chip-level proactive and automatic electronic beamforming.
B. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.
C. It features chip-level proactive and automatic interference mitigation.
D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP 26
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which two characteristics describe a successful mobility installation? (Choose two.)
A. access to information by any user, from any location, from any device
B. grow-as-you-go deployment
C. Cisco Telepresence EX90
D. SMARTnet on every device
700-505 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 26
Which statement about the Threat Operations Center is true?
A. It provides insight into threat trends and outlook
B. It provides 24×7 coverage in three centers.
C. It provides business hours global coverage
D. It provides only automatic rule creation and quality control.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3048
B. Cisco UCS C-Series Servers
C. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 5000
F. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 28
Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Document, application, and desktop sharing
B. Available in 226 languages
C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings
D. Consistent, cross-platform experience
E. Third-party voice included
F. Per-user attention status indicator
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 29
Which three options are benefits to the partner in the Cisco Partner Program? (Choose three.)
A. drives growth and profitability
B. results in more individual Cisco career certifications (that is, CCNA, CCNP)
C. differentiates your business
D. provides access to promotions and incentives
E. partners receive free gear when they achieve certification
F. partner program enrollment increases
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 30
Which three customer decision makers should you focus on when proposing Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. project managers
B. operations managers
C. technical decision makers
D. business decision makers
E. purchasing officers
F. individual contributors
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 31
Which two statements about telephone support for Cisco Small Business Support Service are true? (Choose two.)
A. Local business hours support is available for languages other than English.
B. Phone support is limited to English and Spanish.
C. 24×7 support is available in all languages.
D. 24×7 support is available in English.
E. Local business hours support is available for languages other than English and Spanish.
F. 24×7 support is available in English and Spanish.
700-505 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 32
Your customer has a small business. Their infrastructure includes a single Cisco ISR, and two Cisco Catalyst 2960
switches running multiple VLANs. Which Cisco branded service should be offered to this customer?
A. partner support service
B. SmartCare
C. QSMARTnet
D. small business support service
E. smart business service
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500-X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
B. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided.
C. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
D. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
700-505 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 34
Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloud-managed networks? (Choose two.)
A. having networking experts on site
B. requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization
C. implementing data center or large campus deployments
D. having distributed sites and lean IT staff
E. moving applications to the cloud
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 35
Which three options are benefits that customers have been asking for more of that can be achieved with Cisco Unified
Data Center solutions? (Choose three.)
A. scalability
B. complexity
C. security
D. flexibility
E. growth
F. efficiency
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 36
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C-Series Server
B. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
D. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
E. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
F. Cisco Nexus 5000
Correct Answer: AC

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How to win with 640-911 dumps? The Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking (DCICN) exam (640-911) is a assessment with questions, which is required for Cisco CCNA Data Center certification. The pass4itsure 640-911 dumps pdf computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of networking concepts for the Data Center environment, based on Nexus-OS. You will learn fundamental information on how a Data center network works, how to configure virtualization in the network, addressing schemes, troubleshooting and configuration skills.

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Pass4itsure Cisco 640-911 dumps Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking is a multiple choice dumps that must be completed within 90. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.

TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 640-911 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(1-32)

QUESTION 1
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 8
D. 4
640-911 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which two options are groups of network protocols that are categorized into the following OSI layers: application, data link, network, and transport? (Choose two.)
A. FTP, LLDP, GRE, BGP
B. RDP, CDP, EIGRP, UDP
C. SSH, LLDP, ICMP, TCP
D. Telnet, ICMP, EIGRP, FTP
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10nexus(config-if)#switchport
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“If you want to configure a Layer 3 interface for Layer 2, enter the switchport command. Then, if you change a Layer 2 interface to a routed interface, enter the no switchport command.”

QUESTION 7
Which protocol operates at Layer 3 of OSI model and is used for host addressing?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. RIP
E. OSPF
640-911 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
640-911 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A communicates with the Server what will the source MAC address be in the received frames at PC-A?
A. MAC address of router interface Eth1
B. MAC address of router interface Eth2
C. MAC address of the NIC in the Server
D. MAC address of switch interface E1/9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 10 m
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
What is the dotted hexadecimal representation of the IP address 172.13.99.225?
A. AC.0D.63.E1
B. AB.63.99.D5
C. E2.1D.E1.66
D. BC.0C.C3.1F
E. CC.0D.F3.21
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which two VTP modes allow the creation of local VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. native
C. server
D. client
E. on
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
640-911 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Bits – 1 layer
Packets – 3 layer

QUESTION 17
Unlike IPv6, which feature is available only in IPv4?
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unicast
640-911 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
A network engineer is tasked with installing a new switch into the network access layer. The switch needs to see VTP data, but does not need to participate in the VTP domain. What VTP mode should the switch be configured for?
A. client
B. transparent
C. server
D. off
E. active
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
640-911 dumps
Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. Ethernet packet
C. TCP frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
There is a large amount of traffic inside a network segment with a destination address of
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. What type of traffic uses this address?
A. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 broadcast address.
B. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 network address.
C. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 broadcast address.
D. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 network address.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is multicast traffic.
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A network engineer has been tasked with connecting a Nexus 5548 switch to an older Catalyst 3750. After configuring the interfaces, the engineer noticed that the end hosts did not have network connectivity and the Nexus 5548 had the
following log message:
%STP-2-BRIDGE_ASSURANCE_BLOCK: Bridge Assurance blocking port Ethernet1/27 VLAN0010 What command can solve this problem?
A. configure no spanning-tree port type network on the Nexus 5548 interface
B. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Catalyst 3750
C. configure switchport trunk native VLAN 10 on the Catalyst 3750 interface
D. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Nexus 5548
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 23
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will allow the Nexus 5000 switch to continue to boot? (Choose two.)
A. boot n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
C. copy kickstart-latest n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin startup
D. copy system-latest n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
E. boot n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin admin-password Cisco123
F. load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
640-911 vce Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 24
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Both Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches have one Layer 3 card installed each. Which two additional options are available? (Choose two.)
A. Eight additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
B. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected eight individually to each 5596.
C. One additional Layer 3 expansion module can be installed in each 5596 to increase the Layer 3 forwarding capability.
D. FEX ports can be configured as router ports, extending Layer 3 redundancy to top of rack.
E. FEX ports can be configured for FCoE, reducing cabling footprint.
F. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco active Twinax cables?
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 15 m
640-911 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which three options represent a subnet mask that allows for 60 host addresses on a subnet? (Choose three.)
A. /25
B. 255.255.255.192
C. /26
D. 255.255.255.240
E. 255.255.255.248
F. /28
G. /30
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“A persistent copy of Cisco Router configuration file is called as “startup-config” file. The “startup-config” file is kept in NVRAM and the contents of the “startup- config” file are retained after a reboot.”

QUESTION 29
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 30
How many IP addresses are usable for a subnet that has the address 10.6.128.0/21?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 31
What is the maximum distance for 100Base-TX?
A. 10m
B. 100m
C. 400m
D. 500m
640-911 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 32
HOTSPOT
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Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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