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QUESTION 15
Your company has three offices. The offices are located in Seattle, London, and Tokyo. The network contains an Active Directory domain named northwindtraders.com. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. System Center 20l2 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. The servers in all three sites are monitored by using Operations Manager. The company has a web site for its customers. The web site requires users to signin. You need to recommend a solution to monitor the web site.
The solution must meet the following requirements: Monitor the availability of the web site from locations in North America, Europe, Asia, and Australia. Monitor multistep requests to the web site. Use a central console for monitoring. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Import the System Center Global Services Monitoring Management Pack and add the Web Application Availability Monitoring monitoring type.
B. Add the Web Application Transaction monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
C. Add the TCP Port monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
D. Import the System Center Global Services Monitor Management Pack and add the Visual Studio Web Test Monitoring monitoring type.
70-980 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to implement Microsoft System Center 20l2. You need to identity which soluti n automates the membership of security groups for contoso.com. The solution must use workflows that provide administrators with the ability to approve the addition of members to the security groups. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you identify?
A. Configuration Manager and Orchestrator
B. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. Orchestrator and Service Manager
D. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your network contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 20l2. The servers have the HyperV server role installed. You plan to deploy a management solution.You need to recommend which Microsoft System Center 20l2 roles must be deployed to meet the following requirements: An administrator must be notified when an incident occurs, such as a serious error in the event log, on a HyperV host, or on a virtual machine. An administrator must be able to assign an incident to a specific administrator for resolution. An incident that remains unresolved for more than 10 hours must be escalated automatically to another administrator. Administrators must be able to generate reports that contain the details of incidents and escalations. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
B. Operations Manager and Service Manager
C. Configuration Manager and Service Manager
D. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company has a main office and a branch office. Each office contains several hundred computers that run Windows 20l2.You plan to deploy two Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) servers. The WSUS servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to implement the WSUS infrastructure to meet the following requirements: All updates must be approved from a server in the main office. All client computers must connect to a WSUS server in their local office. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Serverl.
B. On Server2, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
C. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
D. On Server2, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
E. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Server2.
F. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.Your company works with a partner company that has an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. Both forests contain domain controllers that run only Windows Server 20l2 R2.The certification authority (CA) infrastructure of both companies is configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a certificate solution that meets the following requirements:
Server authentication certificates issued from fabrikam.com must be trusted automati ally by the computers in contoso.com.
The computers in contoso.com must not trust automatically any other type of certificates issued from the CA hierarchy in fabrikam.com. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
B. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
C. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
D. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.Your company has an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CAl. You plan to deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to a server named Serverl.The company purchases a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.You plan to register the company’s SMTP domain for Office 365 and to configure single signon for all users. You need to identify which certificate or certificates are required for the planned deployment. Which certificate or certificates should you identify? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
B. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name Serverl
C. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name Serverl
D. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
E. selfsigned server authentication certificates for serverl.contoso.com
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federati n servers. You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers. Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 20l0
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Your network contains a HyperV host named Host1. Host1 hosts 25 virtual machines. All of the virtual machines are configured to start automatically when Hostl restarts. You discover that some of the virtual machines fail to start automatically when Host1 restarts and require an administrator to start them manually. You need to modify the settings of the virtual machines to ensure that they automatically restart when Host1 restarts. Which settings should you modify?
A. Maximum RAM
B. Minimum RAM
C. Memory weight
D. Startup RAM
70-980 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Your network contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) server named Serverl. You use Serverl to manage 20 HyperV hosts. The network also contains five Citrix XenServer virtualization hosts. You need to recommend which installation is required to manage the XenServer servers from Serverl. What should you recommend installing?
A. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on the Citrix XenServer hosts
B. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on Serverl
C. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on Serverl
D. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on the Citrix XenServer hosts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to implement Network Load Balancing (NLB).
You need to identi y which network services and applications can be load balanced by using NLB.
Which services and applications should you identi y?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2 Reporting Services
B. A failover cluster
C. A DHCP server
D. A Microsoft Exchange Server 20l0 Mailbox server
E. A file server
F. A Microsoft SharePoint Server 20l0 frontend Web server
70-980 exam Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 25
You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. Each node has four network adapters. The network adapters on each node are configured as shown in the following table.
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NIC4 supports Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) and Receive Side Scaling (RSS). The cluster networks are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that ClusterNetwork4 is used for Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) redirected traffic. What should you do?
A. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 90,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
B. On each server, replace NIC4 with a 1Gbps network adapter.
C. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 30,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
D. On each server, enable RDMA on NIC4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 20l2. Server1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed. Server1 is configured as an offline standalone root certification authority (CA). You install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server2 and configure the server as an enterprise subordinate CA. You need to ensure that the certificate issued to Server2 is valid for 10 years.What should you do first?
A. Modify the subordinate CA certificate template.
B. Modify the registry on Server2.
C. Modify the registry on Server1.
D. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server2.
E. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server1.
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 200 servers that run either Windows Server 2012 R2, Windows Server 2012, or Windows Server 200S R2. The servers run the
following enterprise applications:
Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Microsoft SQL Server 20l4
System Center 2012 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. Operations Manager monitors all of the servers in the domain. Audit Collection Services (ACS) is installed.You need to recommend a monitoring strategy for the domain that meets the following requirements:
A group of administrators must be notified when an error is written to the System log on the servers that run Exchange Server 2013.
A group of administrators must be notified when a specific event is written to The Application log on the servers that run SQL Server 20l4.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, enable audit collection.
B. From Operations Manager, implement two monitors.
C. From Computer Management, implement one event subscription.
D. From Operations Manager, implement two rules.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Your network contains the following:
20 HyperV hosts
100 virtual machines
2,000 client computers
You need to recommend an update infrastructure design to meet the following requirements: Deploy updates to all of the virtual machines and the client computers from a single console. Generate reports that contain a list of the applied updates. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and a second WSUS server that is integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
B. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager, a second WSUS server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), and a third standalone WSUS server.
D. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: D

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What are some interesting problems for researching in Microsoft 70-744 dumps? The Securing Windows Server 2016 (Windows) exam (70-744) is a assessment with 50 questions, which is required for Microsoft MCP, MCSE certification. The pass4itsure 70-744 dumps pdf computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).

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QUESTION 14
Note: Thi* question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. The forest contains 2#W client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed (rom a customized Windows image. You need to deploy 10 Pnvileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users. Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure each wie as a virtualization host You deploy the operating system on each host by using the customized Windows image. On each host you create a guest virtual machine and configure the virtual machine as a PAW. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario b repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown m the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario
You need to disable SMB 1.0 on Server2. What should you do?
A. From File Server Resource Manager, create a classification rule.
B. From the properties of each network adapter on Server2. modify the bindings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set -SmbClientConfiguration cmdlet.
D. From Server Manager, remove a Windows feature.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains five file servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Finance that contains all of the servers. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Finance OU. You need to ensure that when a user in the finance department deletes a file from a file server, the event is logged. The solution must log only users who have a manager attribute of Ben Smith. Which audit policy setting should you configure in the GPO?
A. File system in Global Object Access Auditing
B. Audit Detailed File Share
C. Audit Other Account Logon Events
D. Audit File System in Object Access
70-744 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Windows PowerShell is a task-based command-line shell and scripting language designed especially for system administration. Windows Defender comes with a number of different Defender-specific cmdlets that you can run through PowerShell to automate common tasks. Which Cmdlet would you run first if you wanted to perform an offline scan?
A. Start-MpWDOScan
B. Start-MpScan
C. Set-MpPreference -DisableRestorePoint $true
D. Set-MpPreference -DisablePrivacyMode $true
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain.You install the ATA Center on server named Server1 and the ATA Gateway on a server named Served.You need to ensure that Server2 can collect NTLM authentication events.What should you configure?
A. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 4776 to Server2
B. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 1000 to Server1
C. Server2 to forward Event ID 1026 to Server1
D. Server1 to forward Event ID 1000 to Server2
70-744 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Note: This question is part of a scries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains mulbple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network; to meet the following requirements:
*The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host.
*Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications.
*The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application.
Solution: You deploy a separate Windows container for each application. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Note: This question b part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contow.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2. Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), link it to the Operations Users OU, and modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The services on Server1 are shown in the following output.
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Sefver1 has the AppLocker rules configured as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)
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Rule1 and Rule2 are configured a$ shown in the following table
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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No
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QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM) 2016 deployed. You implement Privileged Access Management (PAM). You need to request privileged access from a client computer in contoso.com by using PAM. How should you complete the Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 23
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 is a member of a group named HyperHosts. Adatum.com contains a server named Server2. Server1 and Server2 run Windows Server 2016. Contoso.com trusts adatum.com. You plan to deploy shielded virtual machines to Server1 and to configure Admin-trusted attestation on Server2. Which component should you install and which cmdlet should you run on Server2? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 24
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department. You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department. You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario You need to ensure that you can implement the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) (or the finance department computers. What should you do in the contoso.com forest? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A user connects to a wireless network and receives the following message: “Do you want to allow your PC to be discoverable by other PCs and devices on this network?” The user clicks No. The user is unable to browse to the shared folders of other computers on the network by using File E explorer. You need to ensure that the user can browse to the other computers. What should you do?
A. Click Turn on password protected sharing.
B. Disable Network Discovery.
C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule.
D. Run theAdd-VpnConnectionTriggerApplicationcmdlet.
E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the -Direction Outbound parameter.
F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet.
G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet.
H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet.
70-698 exam Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two computers named Computer1 and Computer2. A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Computer1 and Computer2. User1 fails to access the Event Viewer logs on Computer2 from Computer1. User1 can connect to Computer2 remotely by using Computer Management. You need to ensure that User1 can use Event Viewer on Computer1 to remotely view the Event Viewer logs on Computer2. Solution: You run winrm quickconfig on Computer2. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer named Computer1. Computer1 has File History enabled. You create a folder named Folder1 in the root of the C: drive.
You need to ensure that Folder1 is protected by File History. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. From File Explorer, include Folder1 in an existing library.
B. Modify the Advanced settings from the FileHistory Control Panel item.
C. From the Settings app, modify the Backup options.
D. From File Explorer, modify the system attribute of Folder1.
70-698 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By default, File History backs up all libraries. We can therefore ensure that Folder1 is protected by File History by adding the folder to a library. The second method of ensuring that Folder1 is protected by File History is to add the folder location to File History. You do this by modifying the Backup options, not the File History Control Panel item as you might expect. In the Settings app, select Update & Security then Backup. Under the Back up using File History heading, select the Add a drive option.

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You have a computer named Computer1. Computer1 has a virtual hard disk (VHD) named Disk1.vhdx. Disk1.vhdx has an NTFS partition, which is visible in File Explorer as drive E.
You need to apply a Windows 10 image to drive E. What should you run?
A. Add-WindowsImage
B. bcdboot.exe
C. bcdedit.exe
D. bootcfg.exe
E. bootim.exe
F. bootsect.exe
G. diskpart.exe
H. Expand-WindowsImage
70-698 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has two volumes named C and D. Volume C is formatted NTFS and volume D is formatted exFAT. You need to ensure that you can recover files stored in D:\Data. What should you use?
A. System Restore points
B. File History
C. wbadmin.exe
D. Backup and Restore (Windows 7)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
You have 10 computers that run Windows 10 Pro. The computers currently receive updates as part of the Current Branch. You need to configure the computers to receive updates as part of Current Branch for Business. What should you do?
A. Select the Defer upgrades check box.
B. Upgrade to Windows 10 Enterprise.
C. Change the product key.
D. Clear the Give me updates for other Microsoft products when I update check box.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have a computer that has a dual-boot configuration. Windows 10 Pro is installed on the local disk. Windows 10 Enterprise is installed in a VHDX file named Disk1.vhdx. You start the computer to Windows 10 Pro, and then you download a driver package. You need to ensure that the next time the Windows 10 Enterprise installation starts, the driver is installed already. What should you run first?
A. Add-WindowsImage
B. bcdboot.exe
C. bcdedit.exe
D. bootcfg.exe
E. bootim.exe
F. bootsect.exe
G. G. diskpart.exe
H. Expand-WindowsImage
70-698 vce Correct Answer: G
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two computers named Computer1 and Computer2.
A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Computer1 and Computer2.
User1 fails to remotely manage the devices on Computer2 by using Device Manager on Computer1.
User1 can connect to Computer2 remotely by using Computer Management. You need to ensure that User1 can disable a device on Computer2 remotely. Solution: You enable Remote Desktop on Computer2, and you instruct User1 to use Remote Desktop. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains devices that run Windows 10 Enterprise. You need to prevent computers from connecting to hosts on subnet 131.107.0.0/24. What should you do?
A. Click Turn on password protected sharing.
B. Disable Network Discovery.
C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule.
D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet.
E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter.
F. Run theNew-VpnConnection cmdlet.
G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet.
H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet.
70-698 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You have set up a new wireless network for one of your prestigious clients. The director wants to ensure that only certain designated wireless laptops can connect to the new network to prevent misuse. What do you need to do?
A. Use MAC address control
B. UseIPv4 address control
C. Use WEP
D. Use WPA
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Your networks contain a single Active Directory domain. On a domain controller, an administrator creates a custom Microsoft Management Console (MMC) that uses the Active Directory Users and Computer snap-in. The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You use the computer to perform management tasks. You copy the custom MMC to the computer. You need to ensure that you can use MMC and all of the features of the MMC. What should you do on Computer1?
A. Enable the Sideload apps developer feature.
B. Install the Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).
C. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT).
D. Disable User Account Control (UAC).
70-698 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You have 10 computers that run Windows 10 Pro. The computers are in a workgroup. A computer named PC_User1 has shared folder named Share1. Users are not prompted for credentials when they access Share1. You modify the permissions on Share1 so that the share is shared only to a user named User1. You need to ensure that when users from other computers in the workgroup access Share1, they must authenticate by using the credentials of User1. What should you do?
A. Click Turn on password protected sharing.
B. Disable Network Discovery.
C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule.
D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet.
E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter.
F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet.
G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet.
H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem. Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. File History is turned on. The user of Computer1 reports that previous versions of D:\Folder\File1.doc are unavailable from the Previous Versions tab. You need to ensure that the previous versions of the file are created. Solution: Modify the Backup settings in the Settings app. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-698 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain that has a Key Management Service (KMS) host. You deploy Windows 10 to several laptops. You need to ensure that Windows 10 is activated on the laptops immediately. Which command should you run?
A. ospp.vbs/act
B. slmgr.vbs/dli
C. slmgr.vbs/ato
D. ospp.vbs/dstatus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Your network contains a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains a VPN server that supports all of the VPN protocols. A user named User1 works from home and has a desktop computer that runs Windows 10 Pro. User1 has an application named App1 that requires access to a server on the corporate network. User1 creates a VPN connection on the computer. You need to ensure that when User1 opens App1, App1 can access the required data. What should you do?
A. Click Turn on password protected sharing.
B. Disable Network Discovery.
C. Modify the Profile settings of an incoming firewall rule.
D. Run the Add-VpnConnectionTriggerApplication cmdlet.
E. Run the New-NetFirewallRule cmdlet and specify the- Direction Outbound parameter.
F. Run the New-VpnConnection cmdlet.
G. Run the Set-NetConnectionProfile cmdlet.
H. Run the Set-VPNConnection cmdlet.
70-698 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
200-125 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 3
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
B. Router#show run
C. Router#show interface loopback 0
D. Router#show ip interface brief
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
A. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
C. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 7
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
200-125 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. discarding
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 11
If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ipv6 local
B. ipv6 host
C. ipv6 unicast-routing
D. ipv6 neighbor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
200-125 dumps
A. 10.0.0.0 /21
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
C. 10.0.0.0 /23
D. 10.0.0.0 /24
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
200-125 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.
200-125 dumps
Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low
F. IPCP closed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 17
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
200-125 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built in security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 20
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
200-125 dumps
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 21
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
200-125 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
200-125 dumps
A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 23
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
200-125 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 24
You are using MADlib for Linear Regression analysis. Which value does the statement return? SELECT (linregr(depvar, indepvar)).r2 FROM zeta1;
A. Goodness of fit
B. Coefficients
C. Standard error
D. P-value
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which data asset is an example of quasi-structured data?
A. Webserver log
B. XML data file
C. Database table
D. News article
200-125 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
What would be considered “Big Data”?
A. An OLAP Cube containing customer demographic information about 100, 000, 000 customers
B. Daily Log files from a web server that receives 100, 000 hits per minute
C. Aggregated statistical data stored in a relational database table
D. Spreadsheets containing monthly sales data for a Global 100 corporation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A data scientist plans to classify the sentiment polarity of 10, 000 product reviews collected from the Internet. What is the most appropriate model to use? Suppose labeled training data is available.
A. Naïve Bayesian classifier
B. Linear regression
C. Logistic regression
D. K-means clustering
200-125 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
In which lifecycle stage are test and training data sets created?
A. Model building
B. Model planning
C. Discovery
D. Data preparation
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?
A. Router1>
B. Router1#
C. Router2>
D. Router2#
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 91
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 92
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 93
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 94
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 95
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the advertisement of VRF routes on a 7750 SR?
A. By default, a 7750 SR does not advertise all routes in the VRF to a CE router.
B. The default 7750 SR behavior describes all routes in a VRF that are advertised to other PE routers.
C. By default, a 7750 SR does not advertise all routes in the VRF to other PE routers.
D. By default, a 7750 SR advertises all routes in the VRF to a CE router.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 96
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?
A. Multiple MP-BGP sessions are required to carry VPN-IPv4 and VPN-IPv6 routes.
B. PE routers must support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses; customer routers can use either one
C. In 6VPE, MP-BGP is used to advertise IPv6 prefixes and the associated VPRN label.
D. In 6VPE, the provider core routers are IPv6-unaware.
E. All of the above statements are true.
F. All of the above statements are false.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 97
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?
A. 6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 information over an IPv4 MPLS infrastructure.
B. Customers connected to 6VPE could run native IPv6 or IPv4.

C. On the PE router, the next hop for a VPN IPv6 address is an IPv6 address, regardless of the nature of the network between the PEs.
D. 6VPE requires an IPv6-aware MPLS core.
E. Both C and D are false.
F. All of the above statements are true.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 98
Which of the following is NOT a service offered on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. IES
B. VPWS
C. VPLS
D. VPRN
E. L2TP
100-105 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 99
Which of the following best describes a VPRN?
A. Layer 3 direct Internet access service.
B. Layer 2 point-to-point service.
C. Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service.
D. Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 100
Which of the following describes a service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. A logical entity that provides a uniform, end-to-end configuration, management and billing model for provisioning either Internet or VPN connectivity.
B. Provides connectivity between customer access points.
C. A service that can either be local or distributed.
D. All of the above
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 101
Once a service has been created with a customer association, it is possible to change the customer association.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 102
What needs to be configured before a SAP appears? (Choose 2)
A. Configuring the physical port in access mode.
B. Configuring the physical port in network mode.
C. Enabling the port using the no shutdown command.
D. Ports are enabled by default, thus no need to use the no shutdown command.

100-105 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 103
All services mapped to an SDP use the same transport encapsulation type (either GRE or MPLS)
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 104
A Cpipe supports both structured and unstructured frames.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 105
A service provider wishes to configure a Layer 2 service that will forward customer VLAN tags. When configuring an SDP for the service, which vc-type will forward service delimiting tags on the ingress PE?
A. vc-type ether
B. vc-type vlan
C. vc-type dot1q
D. vc-type null
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 106
Which service type would be used to provide a bi-directional Layer 2 connection of TDM circuits over an IP/MPLS network?
A. A-pipe
B. E-pipe
C. I-pipe
D. F-pipe
E. C-pipe
100-105 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 107
Which of the following SAP encapsulations support multiple services on a port? (Choose 3)
A. dot1q
B. null
C. qinq
D. atm
E. ipcp
F. bcp-null
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 108
When a tagged packet is received on a SAP configured with dot1q encapsulation, the VLAN tag must match the value configured on the SAP in order to be forwarded.
A. TRUE

B. FALSE
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 109
In a Layer 2 VPN service, the FCS is stripped when a customer packet arrives at the ingress PE and regenerated on egress.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 110
By default, what does a PE do to support VPLS services for different customers? (Choose 2)
A. MAC learning.
B. Maintain a different Forwarding Data Base for each service
C. ARP mediation.
D. Maintain a different Routing Information Base for each service.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 111
What is the minimum Ethernet physical network MTU required for a Layer 2 service on a GRE encapsulated SDP with a service MTU of 1514?
A. 1514
B. 1526
C. 1548
D. 1556
E. 1536
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 112
A network technician needs to set up a local mirror to replicate traffic for examination with a protocol analyzer. The analyzer is on port 1/1/4 of his service router. Which of the following configuration steps is required?
A. A mirror source listing port 1/1/4.
B. A mirror destination listing port 1/1/4.
C. A remote source command indicating the IP address of the service router he is configuring a local mirror on.
D. Verification that his IP/MPLS infrastructure is in place
E. None of the above.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 113
Which of the following best describes the label stack for a packet in the VPRN context?
A. An outer label and a transport label.
B. An inner label and a service label.
C. A transport label and a service label.
D. An MPLS transport label
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 114
Which of the following statements about VPRN is NOT true? (Choose 2)
A. VPRN is an IP service that connects multiple sites in a single routed domain over the provider managed IP/MPLS network.
B. Each VPRN consists of a set of customer sites that must connect to the same PE router
C. In a VPRN service, each customer router becomes a routing peer to other customer routers
D. VPRN provides customer routers with transparent IP connectivity without knowledge of the MPLS core
100-105 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 115
A VPRN service is configured with BGP used as the CE-PE routing protocol. What address families are required on the PE-CE BGP session?
A. VPN-IPv4 address families are required in order for routes to be exchanged with the PE.
B. Only default IPv4 address families are required since the CE is not aware of the VPRN service
C. Either IPv4 or VPN-IPv4 address families can be configured on the PE-CE BGP session
D. An IPv4 address family configuration is required for the PE-PE configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 116
Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the VPN-IPv4 address family? (Choose 2)
A. When a PE router receives an IPv4 prefix from its local CE it creates a VPN-IPv4 prefix.
B. The route distinguisher (RD) is appended to the IPv4 prefix to form a 16 byte VPN-IPv4 prefix.
C. VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish multiple routes with the same prefixes originated from distinct customers
D. VPN-IPv4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.
E. In VPRN, data traffic is carried in VPN-IPv4 packets.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 117
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?
A. 6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 information over an IPv4 MPLS infrastructure.
B. Customers connected to 6VPE could run native IPv6 or IPv4.
C. On the PE router, the next hop for a VPN IPv6 address is an IPv6 address, regardless of the nature of the network between the PEs.
D. 6VPE requires an IPv6-aware MPLS core.
E. Both C and D are false.
F. All of the above statements are true.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 118
Service tunnels and transport tunnels are bidirectional and only require the operator to configure the tunnel on one router.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 119
A transport tunnel can either use an MPLS or GRE encapsulation.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 120
Which of the following must be configured when configuring an Epipe service? (Choose 4)
A. Configuring an Epipe service with a customer ID
B. Defining a SAP or SAPs.
C. Binding to an SDP if it is a distributed service.
D. Enabling the service using the no shutdown command.
E. Creating and assigning an IP filter to the SAP.
F. Configuring QoS parameters
100-105 vce Correct Answer: ABCD

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QUESTION 13
Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Cluster services
B. NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C. Windows Load Balancing services
D. NetScaler Access Gateway feature
1Y0-A22 exam Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers. Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability for Web Interface?
A. NOCE
B. DESTIP
C. SOURCEIP
D. COOKIEINSERT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes on a monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate this process but does NOT have a third party tool available. Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Prohibit logons and notify users.
B. Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C. Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D. Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
1Y0-A22 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Scenario: The Citrix Administrator of a large farm needs to perform a health check after a scheduled update window. The health check should alert the administrator when the server is unavailable to users. Which action must the administrator take to perform a health check after a scheduled update window?
A. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to verify the applied updates.
B. Use MFCOM to check applied updates and enabled logons.
C. Use MFCOM scripts to verify enabled logons and open Citrix ports.
D. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to check enabled logons and open Citrix ports.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Scenario: A new administrator has been asked to ensure that all servers meet the minimum required patching level. A test server has been used to confirm that all patches can be deployed to the production servers. Testing has identified that production servers are NOT at the same patch level. Which action can the administrator take to identify which patches are required on each production server?
A. Use the Citrix Computer policy wizard.
B. Use the Citrix AppCenter History node.
C. Use the Citrix AppCenter Configuration Tools node.
D. Use the Prepare this server for imaging and provisioning task.
1Y0-A22 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator needs to deploy a small MSI package across all XenApp servers. This package requires a restart which needs to be scheduled to ensure that all servers do NOT restart at once. Which action must the administrator take to fulfill the requirement?
A. Set up Installation Manager.
B. Configure Health Monitoring and Recovery.
C. Create a maintenance policy in the AppCenter console.
D. Use the XenApp Server Role Manager to install Installation Manager.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which component should an administrator monitor to verify if the XenApp servers are accepting ICA connections?
A. ICA Listener
B. Logon Monitor
C. Citrix IMA Service
D. Citrix Streaming Service
1Y0-A22 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A XenApp Administrator needs to set up monitoring between a Web Interface server and the back-end XenApp servers.  Which component should the administrator monitor?
A. ICA Listener
B. Citrix IMA Service
C. Local Host Cache
D. Citrix XML Service
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Scenario: Some users in remote offices complain that Citrix sessions are slow, and the network administrator has asked the Citrix Administrator to determine whether any data transmission errors are occurring for a group of sample users. In this environment, EdgeSight, Branch Repeater and Session Reliability are NOT used. How can the Citrix Administrator determine the extent of data transmission errors based on the sample users?
A. Configure Multi-Stream for sample users.
B. Open the Citrix Connection Center for sample users.
C. Enable ICA round trip calculators for idle connections for sample users.
D. Change the active session limit to something other than Never in the ICA-TCP settings.
1Y0-A22 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Scenario: A user reports that a hosted desktop session is sporadically slow. To assess the problem, an administrator reviews the Client Connection Status of the user and observes the information displayed in the attached exhibit.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.

1Y0-A22 dumps

What can the administrator assess about the network based on the information in the exhibit?
A. ICA network traffic is functioning normally.
B. The white receive bar indicates there is a problem receiving data.
C. Incoming data is constrained as evidenced by the number of incoming versus outgoing frames.
D. Outgoing data is constrained as evidenced by four times the number of incoming bytes/frames.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
Scenario: A remote user has reported that published applications are occasionally slow or choppy. The administrator thinks that it may be a network issue, and requests that the user send a Client Connection Status screenshot which is shown in the attached exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.
1Y0-A22 dumps

Which conclusion can the administrator make based on the information in the attached exhibit?
A. ICA network traffic is functioning normally.
B. The white bar indicates that there may be a problem with incoming data.
C. Outgoing data is constrained as evidenced by the number of bytes/frame.
D. An older version of the Citrix Receiver may be causing ICA traffic to function less optimally.

1Y0-A22 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
A governmental auditor was assigned to determine reasons why the students in one region scored significantly higher on education evaluation tests than did the students in another region. Previous research showed that there is a direct correlation between public financial support and student results. Which of the following is most likely to explain the difference in the regional results?
A. The more successful region spends 30 percent more money on education than does the other region.
B. A higher percentage of the general tax fund is spent on education in the more successful region than in the other region.
C. The more successful region spends more money per student on education than does the other region.
D. The more successful region has increased educational spending by an average of 10 percent each year for the last three years, whereas the other region’s increase averaged only three percent.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which of the following would constitute a violation of the IIA Code of Ethics?
A. An internal auditor, who has recently joined the organization, has accepted an assignment to audit the electronics manufacturing division. The auditor previously served as senior auditor for the external audit of that division and has audited many electronics companies during the past two years.
B. An internal auditor has accepted an assignment to audit the warehousing function six months from now. The auditor has no expertise in that area but has signed up for courses in warehousing that will be completed before the assignment begins.
C. An internal auditor has no ambitions for promotion and has not engaged in training or other professional development activities during the last three years. The auditor’s performance assessments indicate consistent quality of work.
D. An internal auditor discovered an internal financial fraud during the year, and the financial statements were adjusted to properly reflect the loss associated with the fraud. The auditor discussed the fraud with the external auditor during the external auditor’s review of the working papers detailing the incident.
1Y0-A22 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
An auditor decides to perform an inventory turnover analysis for both raw materials inventory and finished goods inventory. The analysis would be potentially useful in:
I. Identifying products for which management has not been attuned to changes in market demand.
II. Identifying potential problems in purchasing activities.
III. Identifying obsolete inventory.

A. III only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
An internal auditor provided the following statement about division A’s performance during the month: “Because supplies of raw material X were scarce, division A’s profits declined by 15 percent.” Which of the following can be validly concluded from the auditor’s statement?
I. Division A’s production level declined by 15 percent.
II. Division A could have sold more products than it produced.
III. Division A usually sells all of the products that it produces.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
1Y0-A22 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
As part of an operational audit of the shipping department, an auditor selected a sample of 45 daily shipping logs from the department’s files. On 44 of the days, the log contained a sufficient number of shipments to meet the department’s daily quota. Based on this test, the auditor concluded that the shipping department was effective at meeting its quotas. Which of the following is true about the auditor’s conclusion?
A. The number of items selected for testing is inadequate to justify the conclusion.
B. The shipping department is effective in meeting its responsibilities.
C. This conclusion would negate any need to perform tests of efficiency.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
An internal audit activity implemented an integrated test facility to test payroll processing. The auditors identified the key controls and processing steps built into the computer program and developed test data to test them. The auditors submitted test transactions throughout the year and did not find any differences in their test results. The auditors can conclude that:
A. The system is properly capturing the hours worked by employees during the year and the hours have been properly submitted to payroll and processed correctly.
B. All employees were correctly paid during the year and their pay was correctly computed.
C. The computer application and its control procedures were processing payroll transactions correctly during the past year.
D. All of the above.
1Y0-A22 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
A code of ethics within the internal auditing profession is necessary in order to:
A. Reduce the likelihood that members of the profession will be sued for substandard work.
B. Ensure that all members of the profession perform at approximately the same level of competence.
C. Provide guidance to internal auditors in their service to others.

D. Require members of the profession to exhibit loyalty in all matters pertaining to the affairs of their organization.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
An auditor is scheduled to audit payroll controls for a company which has recently outsourced its processing to an information service bureau. What action should the auditor take, considering the outsourcing decision?
A. Review the controls over payroll in both the company and the service bureau.
B. Review only the company’s controls over data sent to and received from the service bureau.
C. Review only the controls over payments to the service bureau based on the contract.
D. Cancel the engagement because the processing is being performed outside of the organization.
1Y0-A22 dumps Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
810-403 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

810-403 dumps

QUESTION 3
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? (Choose two.)
A. Advanced Routing

B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which two options are part of the five steps approach needed to conduct a stakeholder analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Define ways to move stakeholders from their current to future position.
B. Identifycustomer stakeholders.
C. Define absolute power and interest of stakeholders.
D. Generate consensus among stakeholders.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
810-403 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

810-403 dumps

810-403 dumps

QUESTION 9
Which framework can give the best insight and visual flow into how a customer\’s functions work together, to go from parts inventory through shipped product?
A. business model canvas
B. porters value chain
C. critical success factor
D. organization chart
810-403 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 12
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION13  A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host? (Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
810-403 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION 14 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department. The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made. Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B
QUESTION 15 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories. A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred from Element manager to CallServer.
810-403 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution. They plan to have the system support 50,000 users. Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)

D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D
QUESTION 17 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
810-403 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 18 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller card with one high density DSP daughter board. How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D
QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099). Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customers requirements?
A. 2001-2008

B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
810-403 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 20 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D
QUESTION 21 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed. What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots. D.
The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
810-403 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 22 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking issue. Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization’s configuration management process?
A. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Chief Information Officer
70-532 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working
within a budget to implement the plan
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3
The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes.
B. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
D. An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.
E. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
70-532 dumps 
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Information system owner
B. Authorizing Official
C. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102

C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
70-532 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are identified by DIACAP? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Accreditation
B. Identification
C. System Definition
D. Verification
E. Validation
F. Re-Accreditation
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 7
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Role-Based Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
70-532 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following refers to an information security document that is used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks: Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established information classification policy. What is the role played by James in the organization?
A. Manager
B. Owner
C. Custodian
D. User
70-532 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You are creating a set of load-balanced virtual machines (VMs) that are hosted on Azure. You run the following Windows PowerShell script. Line numbers are included for reference only.
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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
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QUESTION 11
You are developing a messaging solution for a financial services company named Adatum. The solution must integrate an application named Enrollment and an application named Activation. The Enrollment application is used to enroll new customers. The Activation application is used to activate accounts for new customers. You need to ensure that each message that the Enrollment application sends is stored in a queue for ten minutes before the Activation application uses the message. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 12
You have a cloud service that runs an external process that is named MyStartupTask.cmd. The cloud service runs this external process when the web role starts. The external process writes information to the Windows registry. You set the value of an environment variable named MyID to the deployment ID for the current web role instance. The external process must complete writing the information to the Windows registry before the web role starts to accept web traffic. You need to configure the cloud service. How should you complete the relevant markup? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 13
You deploy a new version of a cloud-service application to a staging slot. The application consists of one web role. You prepare to swap the new version of the application into the production slot. Your Azure account has access to multiple Azure subscriptions. You load the Azure PowerShell cmdlets into the Windows PowerShell command shell. The command shell is NOT configured for certificate-based authentication. You must use the Windows PowerShell command window to configure the application. You need to create five instances of the web role. How should you configure the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
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Do you need to pass Citrix 1Y0-250 dumps before taking CCA-N certification? “Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions” is the name of Citrix 1Y0-250 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Citrix exam. Prepare for best Citrix 1Y0-250 dumps study guide youtube with accurate answers. In the IT market, CCA N 1Y0-250 Certification exam is the way to success.

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Exam Code: 1Y0-250
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions
Updated: Sep 12, 2017
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION NO: 1
A company uses various pre-approved user devices in the environment, including mobile devices
running iOS and Android operating systems.
Which two types of policies could an administrator use on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server to
allow access to these mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. Rewrite policies, including endpoint analysis scans
B. Session policies, excluding the endpoint analysis scans
C. Authorization policies, including the endpoint analysis scans
D. Pre-authentication policies, excluding the endpoint analysis scans
1Y0-250 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 2
An administrator plans to configure a NetScaler Gateway virtual server to be able to provide
SmartAccess, endpoint analysis and network layer tunneling features.
Which client option should the administrator use for this scenario?
A. Offline plug-in
B. Online plug-in
C. Citrix Receiver
D. Access Gateway plug-in
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator is planning a NetScaler Gateway implementation and must ensure that users are
only allowed to access the company resources 1Y0-250 dumps if a specific file is present on the endpoint device
they connect from.
Which component should the administrator include within the plan?

A. An SSL Offload virtual server
B. A double-hop NetScaler Gateway virtual server
C. A Basic mode NetScaler Gateway virtual server
D. A SmartAccess mode NetScaler Gateway virtual server
 Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which information is required to license a NetScaler VPX 1000?
A. NSIP
B. MAC address
C. NetScaler host name
D. Citrix License Server host name
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
An administrator created a service for a Web Interface server that is encrypted by an SSL
certificate.
Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to create a monitor
that will check the Web Interface by logging on to it with a test user’s credentials?
A. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted
B. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password [email protected] -secure YES
C. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password [email protected] -destPort 443
D. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted -secure YES
1y0-250 study guide Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Scenario: An administrator configured a NetScaler Gateway session policy named spol_ICAP. The
administrator needs to bind the policy to ensure that it is evaluated only when users of the ICAP
security group log on to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server named vsrv_AGEE.
Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to meet the needs of
the scenario?
A. bind vpn vserver vsrv_AGEE ICAP
B. bind aaa group ICAP -policy spol_ICAP
C. bind aaa group ICAP -policy spol_ICAP -global OFF
D. bind vpn vserver vsrv_AGEE -policy spol_ICAP -priority 1
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
An administrator plans to use only Citrix Receiver for XenDesktop remote access through a
NetScaler Gateway device.
Which type of policy should the administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A. Session
B. Authentication
C. Clientless access
D. Pre-authentication
1y0-250 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Which configuration option should an administrator select to pass users’ credentials to a file share
in a NetScaler Gateway environment?

A. Local LAN-Access
B. Single sign-on to a domain
C. Single sign-on with Windows
D. Single sign-on to Web applications
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Scenario: An administrator has an existing SSL certificate that is installed and used on a Microsoft
Windows IIS server. The administrator exported the certificate, including the private key, to a PFX
file and now wants to use that certificate for SSL Offloading on NetScaler.
Which two methods could the administrator use to import the certificate on NetScaler? (Choose
two.)
A. Import PKCS#12.
B. Change advanced SSL settings.
C. Use the Server Certificate Wizard.
D. Convert the certificate to PEM format.
1y0-250 vce Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator needs to install a certificate from the NetScaler onto a Microsoft Windows IIS
server.
Which action should the administrator complete before the certificate can be imported on the IIS
server?
A. Select Export PKCS#12 and copy the file to Windows.
B. Copy the certificate file from /nsconfig/ssl to Windows.
C. Copy the certificate file and the key file from /nsconfig/ssl to Windows.
D. Manage Certificates / Keys / CSRs and download the certificate file to Windows.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Scenario: For auditing requirements, NetScaler administrators are required to use their Active
Directory accounts to log on to NetScaler. All NetScaler administrators belong to the NSAdmins
Active Directory group.
Which configuration must an administrator create in NetScaler to meet the requirements of the
scenario?
A. User accounts
B. NSAdmins group
C. Authorization policy
D. Service Groups policy
1y0-250 study guide Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Scenario: An administrator is implementing a two-factor authentication solution with an RSA
SecureID product. The administrator already has the server name and port number of the RSA
server.
Which additional information does the administrator need to configure RSA SecureID?
A. LDAP password
B. Firewall access rule
C. Authentication policy
D. RADIUS shared secret
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices only.
The administrator must include two-factor authentication.

Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor authentication for this
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Bind the RSA policy first.
B. Bind the LDAP policy first.
C. Create an authentication policy.
D. Create a pre-authentication policy.
1y0-250 dumps Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor
authentication solution for a XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake
of a software upgrade on the RADIUS infrastructure. During the outage, the administrator needs to
disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable users’ continued access to
published applications.
Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the
connected users?
A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy.
B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication.
C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
In which format should an administrator save the AppExpert Template files in order to import and
upload to the NetScaler?
A. XML
B. ASP
C. CSV
D. HTML
1Y0-250 vce Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-761
Exam Name: Querying Data with Transact-SQL (beta)
Q&As: 59

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QUESTION NO: 1
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <set>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int t[] ={ 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 7, 9, 8, 0 };
vector<int>v(t, t+10);
multiset<int> s1(v.begin(),v.end());
s1.insert(v.begin(),v.end());
pair<multiset<int>::iterator,multiset<int>::iterator> range;
range = s1.equal_range(6);
while (range.first != range.second) {
cout<<*range.first<<” “; range.first++;
}
return 0;
}
A. program outputs: 6 6
B. program outputs: 5 7
C. program outputs: 5 5 6 6 7 7
D. program outputs: 5 5 7 7
E. program outputs: 1 1 6 6 5 5
70-761 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator()(const T & val ) {
out<<val<<” “;
}
};
struct Sequence {
int start;
Sequence(int start):start(start){}
int operator()() {
return start++ ; }};
int main() {
vector<int> v1(10);
generate(v1.rbegin(), v1.rend(), Sequence(1));
rotate(v1.begin(),v1.begin() + 1, v1.end() );
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<int>(cout) );cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
C. 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10
D. 1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <fstream>
#include <string>
#include <list>
#include <algorithm>
#include <iomanip>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v=0):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;}
operator int() const { return val; };};
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) {out<<setw(3)<<hex<<val; } }; int main () {
int t[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};
fstream f(“test.out”, ios::trunc|ios::out);
list<B> l(t, t+10);
for_each(l.begin(), l.end(), Out<B>(f));
f.close();
f.open(“test.out”);
for( ; f.good() ; ) {
B i;
f>>i;
cout<<i<<” “;
}
f.close();
return 0;
}
A. file test.out will be opened writing
B. file test.out will be truncated
C. file test.out will be opened for reading
D. compilation error
E. program will display sequence 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
70-761 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the code below, assuming that you enter
the following sequence: one two three<enter>?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
string a;
cin>>a;
cout<<a<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program will output:
A. one
B. one two three
C. runtime exception
D. compilation error
E. the result is unspecified
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <map>
#include <vector>
#include <sstream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int t[] = { 3, 4, 2, 1, 0, 3, 4, 1, 2, 0 };
vector<int> v(t, t + 10);
multimap<int, string> m;
for (vector<int>::iterator i = v.begin(); i != v.end(); i++) {
stringstream s;s << *i << *i;
m.insert(pair<int, string>(*i, s.str()));
}
pair<multimap<int, string>::iterator, multimap<int, string>::iterator> range;
range = m.equal_range(2);
for (multimap<int, string>::iterator i = range.first; i != range.second; i++) {
cout << i?>first << ” “;
}
return 0;
}
The output will be:
A. 2 2
B. 1 2
C. 1 3
D. 2
E. 0 2
70-761 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val>v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<B> v1(10,0);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_intersection(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. compilation error
B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 0 0 0
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 2 1 0
D. 5 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
E. 1 2 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <list>
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
int t[] = {1, 2 ,3 ,4 ,5};
vector<int>v1(t, t+5);
list<int>l1;
l1.assign(v1.end(), v1.begin());
for(int i=0; i<l1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<l1.at(i)<<” “;
}
cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. program displays 5 4 3 2 1
B. program displays 1 2 3 4 5
C. compilation error
D. segmentation fault runtime exception
70-761 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val<v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={6,10,8,7,9};
vector<B> v1(10);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
merge(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 10 8 7 9
B. 3 2 4 1 5 6 7 8 9 10
C. 3 2 4 1 5 6 10 8 7 9
D. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
E. compilation error
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 9
Which sentence is correct about the code below?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a) : a(a) {}
int getA() const { return a; }
void setA(int a) { this?>a = a; }
/* Insert Code Here */
};
struct add10 { void operator()(A & a) { a.setA(a.getA() + 10); } };
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<A> v1(t, t + 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), add10());
vector<A>::iterator it = find(v1.begin(), v1.end(), A(7));
cout << it?>getA() << endl;
return 0;
}
A. it will compile and print 7
B. it will not compile
C. it will compile but the program result is unpredictable
D. adding code:
bool operator !=(const A & b) const {
if (this?>a != b.a) { return true; } return false; }
at Place 1 will allow the program to compile
70-761 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
void multiply (int a) {
a*2;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), multiply);
iter_swap(v1.begin(),t+9);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1
B. compilation error
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t[]={3,2,4,1,5,10,9,7,8,6};
vector<int> v1(t,t+10);
cout<<*max_element(v1.begin(), v1.end());
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 3
B. 1
C. 6
D. 10
E. compilation error
70-761 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
int t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<int> v1(10);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_intersection(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. compilation error
B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 0 0 0
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 2 1 0
D. 1 1 2 2 3 4 5 5 6 8
E. 1 2 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 13
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <deque>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t + 10);
deque<int> d1(t, t + 10);
set<int> s1(t, t + 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction); // Line I
for_each(d1.begin(), d1.end(), myfunction); // Line II
for_each(s1.begin(), s1.end(), myfunction); // Line III
return 0;
}
A. program outputs: 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. program outputs: 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1
C. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D. compilation error in line I
E. compilation error in line III
70-761 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <map>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
map<int, int> m;
for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) {
m[i]=t[i];
}
pair<const int,int> p(5,5);
map<int, int>::iterator it = find(m.begin(), m.end(), p);
if (it != m.end())
{
cout<<it?>first<<endl;
}
else
{
cout<<“Not found!n”;
}
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 5
B. Not found!
C. 10
D. compilation error
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
set<int> s1(t, t+10);
vector<int> v1(s1.rbegin(), s1.rend());
swap_ranges(s1.begin(), s1.end(), v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
for_each(s1.begin(), s1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. compilation error
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

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