[2018 New Version] Discount Cisco 100-105 Dumps ICND1 Exam PDF-Answers Q&As Are Based On The Real Exam Video Study 347Q Full Version Offer 1-13

How to win with 100-105 dumps? The Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) (ICND1) exam (100-105) is a 90-minute assessment with 45-55 questions, which is required for Cisco CCENT, CCNA Routing & Switching, CCDA, CCNA Security, CCNA Wireless certification. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html dumps computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
100-105 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address. Those two are not going to change. For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another. (Except switches… they don’t change anything) Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of Router 1. Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the source MAC address of Router1’s exiting interface, and making Router2’s interface as the destination MAC address.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
100-105 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the sending and receiving fields in the encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP server

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established-
-the caller must know the person’s telephone number and the phone must be answered– before the message can be delivered.
TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to eliminate collisions. By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
100-105 pdf Answer: E
Explanation:
For the initial communication, Host A will send a broadcast ARP (all F’s) to determine the correct address to use to reach the destination. ARP sends an Ethernet frame called an ARP request to every host on the shared link-layer legmen. The Ethernet header includes the source host MAC address and a destination address of all Fs representing a broadcast frame. The ARP request contains the sender’s MAC and IP address and the target (destination) IP address. The target’s MAC address is
set to all 0s. ARP Request
Reference:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
What kind of cable should be used to make each connection that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 – Ethernet Crossover cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Fiber Optic cable
4 – Rollover cable
B. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet straight-through cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
C. 1 – Ethernet rollover cable
2 – Ethernet crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Null-modem cable
D. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Rollover cable
E. 1 – Ethernet straight-through cable
2 – Ethernet Crossover cable
3 – Serial cable
4 – Ethernet Straight-through cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
When connecting a PC to a switch, a standard Ethernet straight through cable should be used. This same cable should also be used for switch to router connections. Generally speaking, crossover cables are only needed when connecting two like devices (PC-PC, switch-switch, router-router, etc). Routers connect to frame relay and other WAN networks using serial cables. Rollover cables are special cables used for connecting to the console ports of Cisco devices.

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
100-105 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Switches keep the learned MAC addresses in a table, so that when a frame comes in with a destination MAC address that the switch has already learned, it will forward it to that port only. If a frame comes in with a destination MAC that is not already in the MAC address table, then the frame will be flooded to all ports except for the one that it came in on. In this case, Switch A already knows that 00b0.d0da.cb56 resides on port fa0/6, so it will forward the from out that port.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Answer: C
Explanation:
Only a router can terminate a leased line attachment access circuit, and only a router can connect two different IP networks. Here, we will need a router with two interfaces, one serial connection for the line attachment and one Ethernet interface to connect to the switch on the LAN.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
100-105 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Answer: E
Explanation:
For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto.

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
100-105 exam Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Switches use a separate collision domain for each port, so device A must be a switch. Hubs, however, place all ports in the same collision domain so device B is a hub. Switches reside in layer 2 while hubs are layer 1 devices.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons. First, the foundation of the Internet was built using the TCP/IP suite and through the spread of the World Wide Web and Internet, TCP/IP has been preferred. Second, a project researched by the Department of Defense (DOD) consisted of creating the TCP/IP protocols. The DOD’s goal was to bring international standards which could not be met by the OSI model. Since the DOD was the largest software consumer and they preferred the TCP/IP suite, most vendors used this model rather than the OSI. Below is a side by side comparison of the TCP/IP and OSI models.
100-105 dumps

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[2018 New Version] Useful Cisco 700-802 Dumps Exam PDF-Answers IoT Manufacturing Account Manager Video Training Online 35Q Full Version Offer 1-20

How to win with 700-802 dumps? The IoT Manufacturing Account Manager exam (700-802) is a assessment with 35 questions, which is required for Cisco certification. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-802.html dumps computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of IoT Manufacturing Account Manager.

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QUESTION 1
What does Cisco Connected Factory Wireless primarily help customers to do?
A. Budget money.
B. Save money.
C. Make money.
D. Be safer.
700-802 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are the three horizontal Cisco Internet of Things solutions in manufacturing? (Choose three.)
A. connected factory applications
B. routers
C. connected factory security
D. device connectors
E. converged network platforms
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
What does Cisco Connected Factory Security primarily help customers to do?
A. Make money.
B. Save money.
C. Be safer.
D. Budget money.
700-802 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In which zone does Cisco Connected Factory Security help to protect the manufacturing environment?
A. logistics network
B. danger zone
C. area control zone
D. demilitarized zone
E. enterprise business applications zone
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which three challenges did the company have in the auto manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. reduce spending
B. increase factory security
C. streamline manufacturing workflow
D. implement real-time monitoring
E. deploy mobile-enabled workforce
700-802 pdf Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Which four levels of solutions does the Cisco Internet of Things product structure consist of? (Choose four.)
A. sensors
B. deployment support
C. products (such as, plant switching and plant routing)
D. network management (SDN) and Internet of Things security
E. PaaS, JouleX, Connected Operations
F. fog computing (lOx)
Correct Answer: ACDF

QUESTION 7
Which two outcomes are realized with Cisco Connected Factory Energy Management? (Choose two.)
A. granular real-time visibility on energy usage
B. reduced downtime
C. reduced energy usage
D. increased productivity
700-802 vce Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which four people are important decision-makers in the manufacturing environment? (Choose four.)
A. Director of Marketing
B. Automation Controls Director
C. Plant Engineering Manager
D. Plant IT Director
E. Safety Director
F. Executive Director
G. Facilities Manager
Correct Answer: BCDG

QUESTION 9
Which two things does Cisco Connected Factory Automation primarily help customers to do? (Choose two.)
A. Budget money
B. Be safer
C. Make money
D. Save money
700-802 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which three options are reasons why partners prefer working with Cisco? (Choose three.)
A. the large size of the Cisco organization
B. R and D and innovation for future-proof technology
C. unique capabilities with global reach and holistic solutions
D. partner integration for the best of IT and OT
E. Cisco partners receive little to no support
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
Cost reduction is an important success metric for Automation Controls Directors. In the Internet of Things,
which four options achieve cost reduction? (Choose four.)
A. decreased downtime
B. increased operational equipment effectiveness from 65% to 89%
C. improved quality
D. increased throughput
E. improved uptime
F. improved safety
700-802 dumps Correct Answer: BCDE

QUESTION 12
Connected factory applications are enabled with strategic partnerships. Which four options help to deploy these applications? (Choose four.)
A. Rockwell Automation
B. SAP
C. Librestream
D. AeroScout
E. Google IBM
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 13
At the highest level, what does Cisco Connected Factory Wireless enable everyone in a plant to access?
A. enterprise and internet resources
B. factory floor data
C. Facebook
D. data management applications
700-802 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three benefits were realized as a result of the Cisco Internet of Things solution in the tractor manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. improved production accuracy by 23%
B. integrated, continuous real-time views of manufacturing process
C. reduced cycle-times by 99%
D. reduced cycle-time by 40%
E. reduced overtime that results from efficient replenishment
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 15
Which option is an important benefit of converged network platforms that enables other benefits?
A. increased productivity
B. real-time visibility
C. reduced downtime
D. safer environment
700-802 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which four options are overarching categories of physical hardware within the product structure? (Choose four.)
A. plant routing
B. JouleX
C. field network
D. plant switching
E. IP cameras
F. connected safety and security
Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 17
Which three solution elements were deployed in the tractor manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. IP cameras
B. AeroScout T2 tags
C. mounted exciters
D. MobileView software
E. RockWell automation
700-802 exam Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 18
The Internet of Things is described as the driver for the fourth industrial revolution. Which three options are
important drivers of this revolution? (Choose three.)
A. Manufacturers are consolidating factories.
B. Factories are growing off-shore.
C. Companies are moving toward robotic advancements.
D. Companies are turning toward Ethernet.
E. Manufacturers are moving to big data for answers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 19
Specific company characteristics signal opportunities to sell the Cisco Internet of Things. Which three
characteristics indicate such an opportunity? (Choose three.)
A. security concerns
B. a slow-moving company
C. an IT preference for Cisco
D. a focus on green energy_______________________
E. a move to wireless manufacturing, Ethernet I/O, predictive maintenance, or other new models
700-802 dumps Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 20
Which three challenges did the company face in the motorcycle manufacturer case study? (Choose three.)
A. deploy wireless for instant visibility
B. accelerate new product introduction
C. implement flexible manufacturing
D. reduce plant downtime
E. reduce product theft
Correct Answer: ABC

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How to win with 700-505 dumps? The SMB Specialization for Account Managers exam (700-505) is a assessment with 50 questions, which is required for Cisco certification. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/700-505.html dumps computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of SMB Specialization for Account Managers.

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TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 700-505 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(1-36)

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco service is targeted for customers that want proactive monitoring?
A. SMARTnet
B. Small Business Support Service
C. SmartCare
D. Collaborative Professional Services
700-505 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. end-to-end optimization
B. seamless installation
C. scalability without complexity
D. embedded self service
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or prospective customers? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Meraki roadshow
B. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees IE
C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program
D. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager
E. Free product trials
F. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
Which wireless products can be implemented as stand-alone or as a cluster of APs?
A. Cisco 110/300/500 Series
B. Cisco WLC 2500/SRE
C. Cisco 2600/3600 Series
D. Cisco 700/1600 Series
E. Cisco Meraki MR Series
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical details to help
differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?
A. Cisco Commerce Workspace
B. Competitive Portal
C. Quick Product Reference Guide
D. Cisco Discovery Service
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?
A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.
B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default.
C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the LAN or across the WAN.
D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which incentive program gives an up-front discount to partners with registered opportunities?
A. Cisco Partner Incentive Program
B. Value Incentive Program
C. Solution Incentive Program
D. Opportunity Incentive Program
700-505 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three.)
A. validates business decisions
B. protects revenue streams
C. reduces maintenance and network operation costs
D. increases business resilience
E. enhances career paths
F. promotes independence
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Catalyst model should you recommend to a customer that is considered a bargain buyer?
A. 2960
B. 3750
C. 300
D. 1900
700-505 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy services on demand? (Choose two.)
A. 3900 Series
B. 2900 Series
C. 2800 Series
D. 800 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsize business? (Choose two.)
A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint
B. Cisco MX200
C. Cisco VCS
D. Cisco Profile 42
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)
A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility
B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff
C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools
D. by providing a complex borderless solution
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which three options are characteristics of the Cisco EX-60 Series? (Choose three.)
A. Screen resolution 1920×1080
B. Cisco PrecisionHDTM Camera
C. high-quality 24-inch screen
D. high-quality 21.5-inch screen
E. Can use any USB-connected camera.
F. Screen resolution 600×800
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 14
Which two benefits are delivered by Cisco Telepresence? (Choose two.)
A. Collaboration Experience is integrated.
B. Large files can be delivered between locations.
C. User interface are unified
D. Any endpoint can be used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which four product categories have Cisco Meraki cloud-managed offerings? (Choose four.)
A. IP telephones
B. Cisco Telepresence
C. Mobile device management
D. Switches
E. Security appliances
F. Servers
G. Storage
H. Wireless access points
700-505 vce Correct Answer: CDEH

QUESTION 16
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP8021w
B. Universal PoE
C. medianet
D. Flexible NetFlow
E. Multiprotocol Label Switching
F. Gigabit Ethernet
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about Collaborative Services are true?
A. Cisco sells the service to the partner
B. They are sold by the partner, and are delivered by Cisco.
C. They enable the partner to deliver their own brand of service.
D. They are sold to the customer by Cisco.
700-505 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires high-quality video for full multimedia applications. Which two Cisco
Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. 8900 Series
B. 9900 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 5900 Series
E. 6900 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which statement about TrustSec is true?
A. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.
B. It provides a policy-based, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services to make context-aware access control decisions.
C. It provides secure rich-media and collaboration services to optimize real-time voice and video applications.
D. It provides defense against denial of service attacks.
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which step in solving customer problems is focused on the careful and purposeful integration of products, technologies, services, and management across solutions?
A. Solution
B. Architectural solution
C. Product
D. System
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which two IT solution characteristics do small and midsize business customers prefer? (Choose two)
A. simple devices that work well together right out of the box
B. enterprise-grade functionality; complexity is not a concern
C. flexibility; devices can be added easily in the future D. solutions that will increase employee morale
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 22
Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless Network? (Choose
two.)
A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.
B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases
C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve
D. All potential failures will be eliminated.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 23
Which four customer needs do Cisco architectures help solve? (Choose four.)
A. eliminate redundancy
B. guarantee business outcomes
C. increase ROI
D. reduce independence
E. provide reliability
F. slow staff growth
G. lower costs
H. boost productivity
700-505 vce Correct Answer: CEGH

QUESTION 24
Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?
A. It features chip-level proactive and automatic electronic beamforming.
B. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.
C. It features chip-level proactive and automatic interference mitigation.
D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP 26
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which two characteristics describe a successful mobility installation? (Choose two.)
A. access to information by any user, from any location, from any device
B. grow-as-you-go deployment
C. Cisco Telepresence EX90
D. SMARTnet on every device
700-505 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 26
Which statement about the Threat Operations Center is true?
A. It provides insight into threat trends and outlook
B. It provides 24×7 coverage in three centers.
C. It provides business hours global coverage
D. It provides only automatic rule creation and quality control.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3048
B. Cisco UCS C-Series Servers
C. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 5000
F. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 28
Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Document, application, and desktop sharing
B. Available in 226 languages
C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings
D. Consistent, cross-platform experience
E. Third-party voice included
F. Per-user attention status indicator
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 29
Which three options are benefits to the partner in the Cisco Partner Program? (Choose three.)
A. drives growth and profitability
B. results in more individual Cisco career certifications (that is, CCNA, CCNP)
C. differentiates your business
D. provides access to promotions and incentives
E. partners receive free gear when they achieve certification
F. partner program enrollment increases
700-505 pdf Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 30
Which three customer decision makers should you focus on when proposing Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. project managers
B. operations managers
C. technical decision makers
D. business decision makers
E. purchasing officers
F. individual contributors
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 31
Which two statements about telephone support for Cisco Small Business Support Service are true? (Choose two.)
A. Local business hours support is available for languages other than English.
B. Phone support is limited to English and Spanish.
C. 24×7 support is available in all languages.
D. 24×7 support is available in English.
E. Local business hours support is available for languages other than English and Spanish.
F. 24×7 support is available in English and Spanish.
700-505 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 32
Your customer has a small business. Their infrastructure includes a single Cisco ISR, and two Cisco Catalyst 2960
switches running multiple VLANs. Which Cisco branded service should be offered to this customer?
A. partner support service
B. SmartCare
C. QSMARTnet
D. small business support service
E. smart business service
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500-X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
B. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided.
C. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
D. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
700-505 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 34
Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloud-managed networks? (Choose two.)
A. having networking experts on site
B. requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization
C. implementing data center or large campus deployments
D. having distributed sites and lean IT staff
E. moving applications to the cloud
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 35
Which three options are benefits that customers have been asking for more of that can be achieved with Cisco Unified
Data Center solutions? (Choose three.)
A. scalability
B. complexity
C. security
D. flexibility
E. growth
F. efficiency
700-505 dumps Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 36
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C-Series Server
B. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
D. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
E. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
F. Cisco Nexus 5000
Correct Answer: AC

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[2018 New Version] 100% Pass Rate Cisco 640-911 Dumps PDF CCNA Data Center Exam Youtube Free Download 208Q Full Version Offer 1-32

How to win with 640-911 dumps? The Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking (DCICN) exam (640-911) is a assessment with questions, which is required for Cisco CCNA Data Center certification. The pass4itsure 640-911 dumps pdf computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of networking concepts for the Data Center environment, based on Nexus-OS. You will learn fundamental information on how a Data center network works, how to configure virtualization in the network, addressing schemes, troubleshooting and configuration skills.

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Pass4itsure Cisco 640-911 dumps Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking is a multiple choice dumps that must be completed within 90. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.

TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 640-911 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(1-32)

QUESTION 1
How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 8
D. 4
640-911 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which two options are groups of network protocols that are categorized into the following OSI layers: application, data link, network, and transport? (Choose two.)
A. FTP, LLDP, GRE, BGP
B. RDP, CDP, EIGRP, UDP
C. SSH, LLDP, ICMP, TCP
D. Telnet, ICMP, EIGRP, FTP
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 3
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which device forwards data based on the destination IP address?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which three options describe routers compared to switches? (Choose three.)
A. use IP address tables for information lookup
B. concerned with packet forwarding
C. operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model
D. operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model
E. use MAC address tables for information lookup
F. concerned with the local delivery of frames
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which command should you use to configure a Cisco Nexus switch port for Layer 2 operation?
A. nexus(config-if)#switchport
B. nexus(config-if)#layer-2
C. nexus(config-if)#routed
D. nexus(config)#interface vlan 10nexus(config-if)#switchport
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“If you want to configure a Layer 3 interface for Layer 2, enter the switchport command. Then, if you change a Layer 2 interface to a routed interface, enter the no switchport command.”

QUESTION 7
Which protocol operates at Layer 3 of OSI model and is used for host addressing?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. RIP
E. OSPF
640-911 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
What is the default periodic interval at which RIPv1 sends routing updates?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
E. 90 seconds
F. RIPv1 only sends routing updates when the topology changes.
640-911 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A communicates with the Server what will the source MAC address be in the received frames at PC-A?
A. MAC address of router interface Eth1
B. MAC address of router interface Eth2
C. MAC address of the NIC in the Server
D. MAC address of switch interface E1/9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco passive Twinax cables?
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 10 m
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
What is the dotted hexadecimal representation of the IP address 172.13.99.225?
A. AC.0D.63.E1
B. AB.63.99.D5
C. E2.1D.E1.66
D. BC.0C.C3.1F
E. CC.0D.F3.21
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which two VTP modes allow the creation of local VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. native
C. server
D. client
E. on
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which network topology is most closely associated with classical CSMA/CD?
A. bus
B. token passing bus
C. star
D. extended star
E. ring
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
640-911 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Bits – 1 layer
Packets – 3 layer

QUESTION 17
Unlike IPv6, which feature is available only in IPv4?
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unicast
640-911 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 18
A network engineer is tasked with installing a new switch into the network access layer. The switch needs to see VTP data, but does not need to participate in the VTP domain. What VTP mode should the switch be configured for?
A. client
B. transparent
C. server
D. off
E. active
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
What is the order of the OSI stack starting at Layer 1 and ending at Layer 7?
A. Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
B. Application, Presentation, Transport, Data Link, Session, Physical, Network
C. Physical, Network, Transport, Data Link, Session, Application, Presentation
D. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
E. Presentation, Application, Data Link, Session, Network, Transport, Physical
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
640-911 dumps
Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. Ethernet packet
C. TCP frame
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
There is a large amount of traffic inside a network segment with a destination address of
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. What type of traffic uses this address?
A. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 broadcast address.
B. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 2 network address.
C. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 broadcast address.
D. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is the Layer 3 network address.
E. FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF is multicast traffic.
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
A network engineer has been tasked with connecting a Nexus 5548 switch to an older Catalyst 3750. After configuring the interfaces, the engineer noticed that the end hosts did not have network connectivity and the Nexus 5548 had the
following log message:
%STP-2-BRIDGE_ASSURANCE_BLOCK: Bridge Assurance blocking port Ethernet1/27 VLAN0010 What command can solve this problem?
A. configure no spanning-tree port type network on the Nexus 5548 interface
B. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Catalyst 3750
C. configure switchport trunk native VLAN 10 on the Catalyst 3750 interface
D. configure spanning-tree mode rapid-pvstp on the Nexus 5548
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 23
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will allow the Nexus 5000 switch to continue to boot? (Choose two.)
A. boot n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
C. copy kickstart-latest n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin startup
D. copy system-latest n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
E. boot n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin admin-password Cisco123
F. load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
640-911 vce Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 24
640-911 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Both Cisco Nexus 5596UP Switches have one Layer 3 card installed each. Which two additional options are available? (Choose two.)
A. Eight additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
B. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected eight individually to each 5596.
C. One additional Layer 3 expansion module can be installed in each 5596 to increase the Layer 3 forwarding capability.
D. FEX ports can be configured as router ports, extending Layer 3 redundancy to top of rack.
E. FEX ports can be configured for FCoE, reducing cabling footprint.
F. Sixteen additional Cisco Nexus 2000 switches can be connected in the same manner.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
What is the maximum distance that is supported by Cisco active Twinax cables?
A. 8 m
B. 10 m
C. 12 m
D. 15 m
640-911 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which statement is correct regarding a routed port on a multilayer switch?
A. A routed port requires an SVI definition.
B. Routed ports cannot be configured on a multilayer switch that uses SVIs.
C. A maximum of 32 routed ports can be provisioned on a given multilayer switch.
D. A routed port is a physical port that supports Layer 3 routing.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which three options represent a subnet mask that allows for 60 host addresses on a subnet? (Choose three.)
A. /25
B. 255.255.255.192
C. /26
D. 255.255.255.240
E. 255.255.255.248
F. /28
G. /30
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Where does Cisco Nexus Operating System store the startup configuration file?
A. RAM
B. flash
C. bootflash
D. volatile
E. NVRAM
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
“A persistent copy of Cisco Router configuration file is called as “startup-config” file. The “startup-config” file is kept in NVRAM and the contents of the “startup- config” file are retained after a reboot.”

QUESTION 29
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 30
How many IP addresses are usable for a subnet that has the address 10.6.128.0/21?
A. 1024
B. 2048
C. 1022
D. 2046
E. 256
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 31
What is the maximum distance for 100Base-TX?
A. 10m
B. 100m
C. 400m
D. 500m
640-911 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 32
HOTSPOT
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640-911 dumps
640-911 dumps
Hot Area:
640-911 dumps
Correct Answer:
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[2018 New Version] Latest Cisco 640-692 Dumps PDF Advanced Routing and Switching Exam Tests With 100% Pass Rate Video Study 92Q Full Version Offer 1-33

How to win with 640-692 dumps? The Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices (RSTECH) exam (640-692) is a 90-minute assessment with 60-70 questions, which is required for Cisco CCT Routing & Switching certification. The pass4itsure 640-692 dumps rstech computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS Software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

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Pass4itsure Cisco 640-692 dumps Supporting Cisco routing and Switching Network Devices is a multiple choice dumps that must be completed within 90. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.

TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 640-692 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(1-33)

QUESTION 1
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
640-692 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)
A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and ‘Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a DTE device?
A. router
B. CSU/DSU
C. cable modem
D. DSL modem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two)
A. It is a repeater.
B. It is a data link layer device.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. It acts as an amplifier.
640-692 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?
A. Crossover
B. Straight-through
C. Fiber
D. Rollover
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
640-692 dumps
Which type of cable us used on the ATM card?
A. Fiber-optic BNC
B. Coaxial
C. Serial
D. Crossover
640-692 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
A. a single strand of glass fiber
B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber
C. cost is less than multimode fiber
D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
640-692 dumps
Into which port do you insert the card?
A. ATM
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Serial
D. Ethernet
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which layer of the IOS model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which type if memory is used to permanently store the Cisco IOS software?
A. Flash
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
D. NVRAM
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What is the default operating mode you are initially logging into a router?
A. global configuration
B. privileged EXEC
C. ROM monitor
D. user EXEC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two of the following are component of WAN connection? (Choose two)
A. router
B. switch
C. CSU/DSU
D. Hub
E. Bridge
640-692 vce Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
Which command initiates the transfer of a Cisco IOS image over IP from ROMMON?
A. copy tftp: flash:
B. copy flash: tftp:
C. tftpdnld
D. xmodem
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
ESD is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two different objects at different electrical potentials caused by direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field. Which three of the following tools should be used to avoid ESD? (Choose three)
A. ESD wrist strap
B. Latex gloves
C. Antistatic bag
D. Antistatic mat
E. Negative static mat
F. Negative static bag
640-692 exam Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 18
Which command indicates the amount of memory (NVRAM, RAM, and flash) in a Cisco device?
A. show diag
B. show environment
C. show inventory
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which two of the following are true? (Choose two)
A. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.
B. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
C. When using HyperTerminal to communicate over a TCP/IP network, the SSH protocol is used.
D. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
E. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 20
The colored wires at one end of the cable in the reverse sequence of the colored wires at the other end of the cable.
Which cable does this describe?
A. Rolled
B. Coaxial
C. Crossover
D. Straight-through
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which two of the following are features of NVRAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two)
A. Stores startup configuration
B. Stores running configuration
C. Stores routing tables
D. Stores decompressed IOS software image
E. Erased when device is rebooted
F. Not erased when device is rebooted
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 22
Which command displays the configuration register setting?
A. show config-register
B. show flash
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which two of the following statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Because FTP usually requires authentication, a Cisco router must be configured with the appropriate username and password.
B. FTP uses UDP as its transport protocol.
C. The copy running-config ftp: command is used to copy a configuration file from an FTP server to the running configuration.
D. A router can act as an FTP server.
E. FTP can be used to load Cisco IOS software to router in ROMMON mode.
640-692 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
From a Windows command prompt, which command displays the local IP address of a computer?
A. ip config
B. ip configuration
C. ipconfig
D. ipconfiguration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to the Console port on a Cisco router?
A. crossover
B. straight-through
C. fiber
D. rollover
640-692 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
What are two possible causes if an Ethernet interface is up and the line protocol is down? (Choose two)
A. The Ethernet cable might not be attached properly
B. There is a speed or duplex mismatch with the remote device
C. The Ethernet interface has been manually disabled
D. There is a Layer 2 mismatch in the encapsulation type
E. Keepalives are not being received by the local device
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 27
Which type of memory is necessary for a router to boot?
A. DRAM
B. PVDM
C. NVRAM
D. VRAM
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two pieces of information can be determined about a neighbor device from the CLI command show cdp neighbor? (Choose two)
A. device ID
B. IP address
C. platform
D. uptime
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 29
Which two modules can be plugged into internal advanced integration module (AIM) slots on a Cisco router? (Choose two)
A. Virtual Private Network Module
B. Intrusion Detection System Module
C. Packet Voice Digital Signal Processor Module
D. LAN Switching Module
E. Voice Interface Module
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which two commands are used to set the configuration register value? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)#config-register 0x2102
B. Router(config)#confreg 0x2102
C. rommon>config-register 0x2102
D. rommon>confreg 0x2102
E. Router(config)#configuration-register 0x2102
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 31
What are two ways to open a command prompt session on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Click Start > Control Panel > Command Prompt
B. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Command Prompt
C. Click Start > All Programs > Command Prompt
D. Click Start > Run. Enter cmd and click OK
E. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Communications > Command Prompt
640-692 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
Match the prompt on the left to the operational mode on the right. Not all prompts will be used.
Select and Place:
640-692 dumps
Correct Answer:
640-692 dumps
640-692 dumps

QUESTION 33
You are performing a password recovery on a Cisco fixed Catalyst switch. Click and drag the steps on the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:
640-692 dumps
Select and Place:
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640-692 exam Correct Answer:
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2018 New Pass4isture Cisco 100-105 Dumps Version: This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, LAN switching technologies, routing technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

QUESTION 1pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 dumps
Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access the network?
A. CSMA/CD
B. IGMP
C. port security
D. split horizon
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Ethernet began as a local area network technology that provided a half-duplex shared channel for stations connected to coaxial cable segments linked with signal repeaters. In this appendix, we take a detailed look at the half-duplex shared
channel mode of operation, and at the CSMA/CD mechanism that makes it work. In the original half-duplex mode, the CSMA/CD protocol allows a set of stations to compete for access to a shared Ethernet channel in a fair and equitable manner. The protocol’s rules determine the behavior of Ethernet stations, including when they are allowed to transmit a frame onto a shared Ethernet channel, and what to do when a collision occurs. Today, virtually all devices are connected to Ethernet switch ports over full-duplex media, such as twisted-pair cables. On this type of connection, assuming that both devices can support the full-duplex mode of operation and that Auto-Negotiation (AN) is enabled, the AN protocol will automatically select the highest-performance mode of operation supported by the devices at each end of the link. That will result in full-duplex mode for the vast majority of Ethernet connections with modern interfaces that support full duplex and AN.

QUESTION 2
Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
A. It is defined globally
B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route maps.
C. It must be configured if static NAT is used
D. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This module describes how to configure Network Address Translation (NAT) for IP address conservation and how to configure inside and outside source addresses. This module also provides information about the benefits of configuring NAT for IP address conservation. NAT enables private IP internetworks that use nonregistered IP addresses to connect to the Internet. NAT operates on a device, usually connecting two networks, and translates the private (not globally unique) addresses in the internal network into legal addresses before packets are forwarded onto another network. NAT can be configured to advertise to the outside world only one address for the entire network. This ability provides additional security by effectively hiding the entire internal network behind that one address. NAT is also used at the enterprise edge to allow internal users access to the Internet and to allow Internet access to internal devices such as mail servers.

QUESTION 3
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that represents the “next hop” on the way to the final destination. The next hop association can also be the outgoing or exit interface to the final destination.

2018 New Pass4isture Cisco 200-105 Dumps Version: This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.
QUESTION 1pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 dumps
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF do

QUESTION 3
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C

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[2018 New Version] Latest Updated Cisco 300-075 Dumps PDF CCNP Collaboration Exam Questions Video Training 420Q Full Version Offer 1-21

How to win with 300-075 dumps? The Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0 (CIPTV2) exam (300-075) is a 75-minute assessment with 50-60 questions, which is required for Cisco CCNP Collaboration certification. The pass4itsure 300-075 dumps pdf computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) dialing, globalized call routing, Intercluster Lookup Service and Global Dial Plan Replication, Cisco Service Advertisement Framework and Call Control Discovery, tail-end hop-off, Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, Enhanced Location Call Admission Control (CAC) and Automated Alternate Routing (AAR), and mobility features such as Device Mobility, Cisco Extension Mobility, and Cisco Unified Mobility.

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TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 300-075 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(1-21)

Question No : 1Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 7965 and 9971 Video IP Phones. The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence Conductor, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
DNS Server:
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What two tasks must be completed in order to support calls between the VCS controlled endpoints and the Cisco Unified CM endpoints? (Choose two.)
A. Media Resource Group List.
B. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
C. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco Unified CM to point to the Cisco VCS.
D. Configure a SIP trunk on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
E. Configure a neighbor zone on the Cisco VCS to point to the Cisco Unified CM.
300-075 exam Answer: C,D

Question No : 2
How long is the default keepalive period for SRST in Cisco IOS?
A. 45 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 120 sec
Answer: B

Question No : 3
Which three items must you configure to enable SAF Call Control Discovery? (Choose three.)
A.a calling search space
B.hosted DN patterns
C.translation patterns
D.route patterns
E.the SIP or H.323 trunk
F.hosted DN groups
300-075 dumps Answer: B,E,F

Question No : 4
Which module is the minimum PVDM3 module needed to support video transcoding?
A. PVDM3-32
B. PVDM3-64
C. PVDM3-128
D. PVDM3-192
Answer: C

Question No : 5
When you connect a Cisco VCS Control to Cisco Unified Communications Manager by using a SIP trunk, which mechanism do you use to verify that the trunk has an active
connection?
A. OPTIONS ping
B. DNS tracing
C. Continuous ping
D. Dynamic DNS
300-075 pdf Answer: A

Question No : 6
Company X currently uses a Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which has been configured for IP desk phones and Jabber soft phones. Users report however that whenever they are out of the office, a VPN must be set up before their Jabber client can be
used. The administrator for Company X has deployed a Collaboration Expressway server at the edge of the network in an attempt to remove the need for VPN when doing voice. However, devices outside cannot register. Which two additional steps are needed to complete this deployment? (Choose two.)
A. A SIP trunk has to be set up between the Expressway-C and Cisco UCM.
B. An additional interface must be enabled on the Cisco UCM and placed in the same subnet at the Expressway.
C. The customer firewall must be configured with any rule for the IP address of the external Jabber client.
D. The Expressway server needs a neighbor zone created that points to Cisco UCM.
E. Jabber cannot connect to Cisco UCM unless it is on the same network or a VPN is set up from outside.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 7
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication and wants to prevent the local cluster from routing the Vice President number 5555555555 to the remote cluster. Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Create a block route pattern.
B. Create a block learned pattern.
C. Create a block transformation pattern.
D. Create a block translation pattern.
300-075 vce Answer: C

Question No : 8
Which solution is needed to enable presence and extension mobility to branch office phones during a WAN failure?
A. SRST without MGCP fallback
B. SRST with VoIP dial peers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
C. SRST with MGCP fallback
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode
Answer: C

Question No : 9
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
300-075 exam Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 10
When video endpoints register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where are DSCP values configured?
A. in Unified CM, under Enterprise Parameters Configuration
B. in Unified CM, under Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. in Unified CM, under Service Parameters > Cisco CallManager Service > Cluster-wide Parameters
D. DSCP parameters are always configured on each individual video endpoint.
Answer: C

Question No : 11
Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a VCS Control server with video endpoints registered on both systems. Users find that video endpoints registered on Call manager can call each other and likewise for the endpoints registered on the VCS server. The administrator for Company X realizes he needs a SIP trunk between the two systems for any video endpoint to call any other video endpoint. Which two steps must the administrator take to add the SIP trunk? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a SIP trunk on Cisco UCM with the option Device-Trunk with destination address of the VCS server.
B. Set up a subzone on Cisco UCM with the peer address to the VCS cluster.
C. Set up a neighbor zone on the VCS server with the location of Cisco UCM using the menu option VCS Configuration > Zones > zone.
D. Set up a SIP trunk on the VCS server with the destination address of the Cisco UCM and Transport set to TCP.
E. Set up a traversal subzone on the VCS server to allow endpoints that are registered on Cisco UCM to communicate.
300-075 dumps Answer: A,C

Question No : 12
Which three options are overlapping parameters for roaming when a device is configured for Device Mobility? (Choose three.)
A. device pool
B. location
C. network locale
D. codec
E. MRGL
F. extension
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
The overlapping parameters for roaming-sensitive settings are Media Resource Group List, Location, and Network Locale. The overlapping parameters for the Device Mobility-related settings are Calling Search Space (called Device Mobility Calling Search Space at the device pool), AAR Group, and AAR Calling Search Space. Overlapping parameters configured at the phone have higher priority than settings at the home device pool and lower priority than settings at the roaming device pool.

QUESTION 13
Which two options are configuration steps on Cisco Unified Communications Manager that are used when integrating with VCS Expressway servers? (Choose two.)
A. allowing numeric dialing from Cisco phones to Expressway
B. configuring a device pool with video feature enabled
C. allowing dialing to Expressway domain from Cisco phones
D. creating an application user on Cisco Unified Communications Manager with assigned privileges
E. adding the Expressway servers to the Application Servers list
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which three commands are necessary to override the default CoS to DSCP mapping on interface Fastethernet0/1?Question No : 7
(Choose three.)
A. mls qos map cos-dscp 0 10 18 26 34 46 48 56
B. mls qos map dscp-cos 8 10 to 2
C. mls qos
D. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos trust cos
E. interface Fastethernet0/1 mls qos cos 1
F. interface Fastethernet0/2 mls qos cos 1
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 15
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows.
DP:
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
After adding SRST functionality the SRST does not work. After reviewing the exhibits, which of the following reasons
could be causing this failure?
A. Device Pool cannot be default.
B. The Cisco UCM is pointing to the wrong IPv4 address of the BR router.
C. The router does not support SRST.
D. The SRST enabled router is not configured correctly.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A voice engineer is enabling video capabilities between H.323 and SIP endpoints. Which component allows for standardized caller addresses between the endpoints?
A. search rules
B. SIP route pattern
C. policy service
D. transform
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You need to verify if the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway is enabled and active. Which command should you use for this purpose?
A. show running-config
B. show fallback-mgcp
C. show gateway
D. show ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
E. show running-config gateway
F. show fallback-mgcp ccm-manager
300-075 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone.
The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for
Windows.
SX20 System information:
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password.
B. Wrong SIP domain configured.
C. User is not associated with the device.
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue.
E. CSF Device is not registered.
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 19
What is the default DSCP/PHB for TelePresence video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46
B. CS6/48
C. AF41/34
D. CS3/24
E. CS4/32
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
In the case of a VCS cluster, which configuration element is recommended for endpoint H.323 registration?
A. DNS SRV records pointing to the VCS cluster name
B. static IP addresses
C. hostname of the VCS cluster configuration master
D. hostname of the VCS cluster member peer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone.
The Cisco VCS and TMS control the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for Windows DP:
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
Which device configuration option will allow an administrator to control bandwidth between calls placed between branches?
A. Media Resource Group List
B. Device Pool
C. Location
D. AAR Group
E. Regions
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: C

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How to win with 300-070 dumps? The Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 (CIPTV1) exam (300-070) is a 75-minute assessment with 65 – 75 questions, which is required for Cisco CCNP Collaboration certification. The pass4itsure 300-070 dumps ciptv1 computer-based, multiple-choice exam tests the candidate’s knowledge of configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager, implement gateways and Cisco Unified Border Element, and build dial plans to place on-net and off-net voice and video calls using traditional numbered dial plans and Uniform Resource Identifiers (URIs).

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Cisco 300-070 dumps Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0 is a multiple choice dumps that must be completed within 75. Some of the topics assessed are how to consider the challenges faced by business and IT today and how this relates to Cisco opportunities. The exam also assesses who “the customer” is and the importance of applications to many of the customers that are influential in purchasing application-based solutions.

TO GET MORE INFORMATION ABOUT Cisco 300-070 Dumps EXAM GO HERE(22-51)

QUESTION 22
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2111, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Bob has set his phone to forward calls to extension 5000. When a call is placed to extension 2000, which phone will ring?
300-070 dumps
A. Phone A
B. Phone B
C. Phone C
D. Phone D
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which two options are resources in a route list that route calls that match a defined route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. gateways
B. route groups
C. virtual machine servers
D. IP phones
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support only numeric values.
B. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translations patterns supportonly numeric values.
D. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns supportonly numeric values.
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which three Cisco Unified Communications Manager settings can be used to support IP phone services? (Choose three.)
A. Device Defaults
B. Enterprise Parameters
C. IP Phone Service Configuration window
D. Common Phone Profile
E. Service Parameters
F. Phone Configuration window
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey’s Gateway
C. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
300-070 vce Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 30
You are a Voice Engineer at ABC Company. You want to provision a new voice gateway for a remote site, and you need to configure 24 channels of a T1 CAS interface. Which set is the correct set of commands for this configuration?
A. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# primary-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
B. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# linecode hdb3R1(config-controller)# framing crc4R1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
C. R1(config)# isdn switch-type primary-5essR1(config)# controller t1 t1/0R1(config- controller)# pri-group timeslots 1-24
D. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
300-070 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about the default VoIP dial peer are true? (Choose three.)
A. VAD is disabled.
B. RSVP is not supported.
C. Only the G.711 codec is supported.
D. The G.729 and G.711 codecs are supported.
E. Fax-rate service is supported.
F. DTMF relay is supported.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two)
A. Partitions.
B. Calling Search Spaces.
C. Route patterns.
D. Translation patterns.
E. Call Admission Control.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
What is the problem when 237 dials 972551915?
A. The problem is in “forward-digits 7”; the dial peer should be with “forward-digits 9.”
B. The problem is in “forward-digits 7”; the dial peer should be with “forward-digits 5.”
C. The problem is in “forward-digits 7”; the dial peer should be with “forward-digits 2.”
D. The problem is in “forward-digits 7”; the dial peer should be with “forward-digits 8.”
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
To reach an external number, a user first dials a 9. Which route pattern will be matched if a user dials the toll-free number 18005550123?
A. 911
B. 9.[2-9]XXXXXX
C. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
D. 9.1800XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866XXXXXXX
F. 9.1877XXXXXXX
G. 9.1888XXXXXXX
H. 9.1900XXXXXXX
I. 9011!
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 36
A voice engineer is troubleshooting an issue that involves incoming calls to POTS lines. Which command verifies the digits that are received by voice-port?
A. debug voip dial-per
B. debug vtsp session
C. debug vtsp dsp
D. debug call treatment
E. debug voice protocol
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 37
Which QoS model is bandwidth-dedicated to provide sufficient quality for applications that need high resolution, such as video terminals?
A. Best-Effort
B. IntServ
C. DiffServ
D. DiffServf
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which QoS model is bandwidth-dedicated to provide sufficient quality for applications that need high resolution, such as video terminals?
A. DiffServ
B. Best-Effort
C. DiffServf
D. IntServ
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A. a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B. a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C. a route list with no route groups configured
D. a route list with one or more route groups configured
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 40
You need to delete an auto-registration Cisco Unified Communications Manager group for a cluster. What should you do?
A. Remove the Cisco Unified CallManager group devices.
B. Disable auto-registration settings in the Cisco Unified CallManager group.
C. Assign a different call group as the auto-registration Cisco Unified CallManager group.
D. Delete the auto-registration Cisco Unified CallManager group without performing any action.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 41
What function does the device pool perform?
A. It separates user and physical location information.
B. It sets the default device parameters for all IP phones in the cluster.
C. It sets the location bandwidth used between different locations.
D. It provides a single point of configuration for every device in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:

QUESTION 42
Hackers are sending calls through a gateway router that is running SIP. The engineer blocks all SIP messages to the router except from their SIP server, which has an IP address of 208.177.10.1. The customer also must connect via SIP to their Cisco Expressway server with an IP address of 10.1.10.110. Which series of commands secures the router from the hackers?
A. voice service voip voip security allow
ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255
ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
B. voice service voip ip address trusted list
ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255
ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
C. voice service voip allow-connections sip to sip
ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255
ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
D. voice service voip address-hiding ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255
ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Which three commands show the output of an active video call? (Choose three.)
A. show vrm active_calls
B. show call active video brief
C. show voip rtp connections
D. show voice call
E. show voice call summary
F. show video dsp
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation

QUESTION 44
Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?
A. $
B. !
C. #
D. .
300-070 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 45
Which CUCM default global conference setting should be changed to ensure fraud prevention?
A. Advanced Ad Hoc Conference Enabled.
B. Block OffNet to OnNet Transfer.
C. MCU Conference Bridge Custom Layout Index.
D. Drop Ad Hoc Conference.
E. Enable Click-to-Conference for Third-Party Applications.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 46
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2001, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Which two of these are required in order for Cisco Unified Communications Manager to support software conferencing? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated on the server running the conferencing service in the cluster.
B. The service parameter for the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to have Run Flag set to True.
C. The software conference bridge resource needs to be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated for all servers in the cluster.
E. Under the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application parameters, the conference bridge needs to have Run Flag set to True.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 48
Which two options can a route pattern be assigned? (Choose two.)
A. a gateway that is not assigned to a route group
B. a gateway that is assigned to a route group
C. a route list with no route groups configured
D. a route list with one or more route groups configured
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 49
Which DSCP classification is defined in RFC 2474?
A. DSCP CS3.
B. DSCP 0.
C. DSCP AF11.
D. DSCP CS6.
E. DSCP EF.
F. DSCP CS2.
G. DSCP CS1.
H. DSCP AF21.
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 50
What are two benefits of using the DiffServ QoS model? (Choose two)
A. It offers an absolute guarantee of service quality.
B. It is highly scalable.
C. RTCP is scalable.
D. It provides many different levels of quality.
E. RSVP is not scalable.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 51
Which two features are advantages of deploying a cluster over WAN? (Choose two.)
A. Shared line appearances
B. CentralizedDSP resources
C. Extension mobility within the cluster
D. Scalability up to 20 sites, if thereis sufficient IP WAN bandwidth
E. Failover to co-resident Cisco UnifiedCall Manager Express platforms
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

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QUESTION 15
Your company has three offices. The offices are located in Seattle, London, and Tokyo. The network contains an Active Directory domain named northwindtraders.com. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. System Center 20l2 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. The servers in all three sites are monitored by using Operations Manager. The company has a web site for its customers. The web site requires users to signin. You need to recommend a solution to monitor the web site.
The solution must meet the following requirements: Monitor the availability of the web site from locations in North America, Europe, Asia, and Australia. Monitor multistep requests to the web site. Use a central console for monitoring. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Import the System Center Global Services Monitoring Management Pack and add the Web Application Availability Monitoring monitoring type.
B. Add the Web Application Transaction monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
C. Add the TCP Port monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
D. Import the System Center Global Services Monitor Management Pack and add the Visual Studio Web Test Monitoring monitoring type.
70-980 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to implement Microsoft System Center 20l2. You need to identity which soluti n automates the membership of security groups for contoso.com. The solution must use workflows that provide administrators with the ability to approve the addition of members to the security groups. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you identify?
A. Configuration Manager and Orchestrator
B. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. Orchestrator and Service Manager
D. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your network contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 20l2. The servers have the HyperV server role installed. You plan to deploy a management solution.You need to recommend which Microsoft System Center 20l2 roles must be deployed to meet the following requirements: An administrator must be notified when an incident occurs, such as a serious error in the event log, on a HyperV host, or on a virtual machine. An administrator must be able to assign an incident to a specific administrator for resolution. An incident that remains unresolved for more than 10 hours must be escalated automatically to another administrator. Administrators must be able to generate reports that contain the details of incidents and escalations. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
B. Operations Manager and Service Manager
C. Configuration Manager and Service Manager
D. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company has a main office and a branch office. Each office contains several hundred computers that run Windows 20l2.You plan to deploy two Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) servers. The WSUS servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
70-980 dumps
You need to implement the WSUS infrastructure to meet the following requirements: All updates must be approved from a server in the main office. All client computers must connect to a WSUS server in their local office. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Serverl.
B. On Server2, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
C. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
D. On Server2, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
E. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Server2.
F. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.Your company works with a partner company that has an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. Both forests contain domain controllers that run only Windows Server 20l2 R2.The certification authority (CA) infrastructure of both companies is configured as shown in the following table.
70-980 dumps
You need to recommend a certificate solution that meets the following requirements:
Server authentication certificates issued from fabrikam.com must be trusted automati ally by the computers in contoso.com.
The computers in contoso.com must not trust automatically any other type of certificates issued from the CA hierarchy in fabrikam.com. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
B. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
C. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
D. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.Your company has an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CAl. You plan to deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to a server named Serverl.The company purchases a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.You plan to register the company’s SMTP domain for Office 365 and to configure single signon for all users. You need to identify which certificate or certificates are required for the planned deployment. Which certificate or certificates should you identify? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
B. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name Serverl
C. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name Serverl
D. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
E. selfsigned server authentication certificates for serverl.contoso.com
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federati n servers. You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers. Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 20l0
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Your network contains a HyperV host named Host1. Host1 hosts 25 virtual machines. All of the virtual machines are configured to start automatically when Hostl restarts. You discover that some of the virtual machines fail to start automatically when Host1 restarts and require an administrator to start them manually. You need to modify the settings of the virtual machines to ensure that they automatically restart when Host1 restarts. Which settings should you modify?
A. Maximum RAM
B. Minimum RAM
C. Memory weight
D. Startup RAM
70-980 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Your network contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) server named Serverl. You use Serverl to manage 20 HyperV hosts. The network also contains five Citrix XenServer virtualization hosts. You need to recommend which installation is required to manage the XenServer servers from Serverl. What should you recommend installing?
A. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on the Citrix XenServer hosts
B. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on Serverl
C. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on Serverl
D. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on the Citrix XenServer hosts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to implement Network Load Balancing (NLB).
You need to identi y which network services and applications can be load balanced by using NLB.
Which services and applications should you identi y?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2 Reporting Services
B. A failover cluster
C. A DHCP server
D. A Microsoft Exchange Server 20l0 Mailbox server
E. A file server
F. A Microsoft SharePoint Server 20l0 frontend Web server
70-980 exam Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 25
You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. Each node has four network adapters. The network adapters on each node are configured as shown in the following table.
70-980 dumps
NIC4 supports Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) and Receive Side Scaling (RSS). The cluster networks are configured as shown in the following table.
70-980 dumps
You need to ensure that ClusterNetwork4 is used for Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) redirected traffic. What should you do?
A. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 90,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
B. On each server, replace NIC4 with a 1Gbps network adapter.
C. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 30,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
D. On each server, enable RDMA on NIC4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 20l2. Server1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed. Server1 is configured as an offline standalone root certification authority (CA). You install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server2 and configure the server as an enterprise subordinate CA. You need to ensure that the certificate issued to Server2 is valid for 10 years.What should you do first?
A. Modify the subordinate CA certificate template.
B. Modify the registry on Server2.
C. Modify the registry on Server1.
D. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server2.
E. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server1.
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 200 servers that run either Windows Server 2012 R2, Windows Server 2012, or Windows Server 200S R2. The servers run the
following enterprise applications:
Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Microsoft SQL Server 20l4
System Center 2012 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. Operations Manager monitors all of the servers in the domain. Audit Collection Services (ACS) is installed.You need to recommend a monitoring strategy for the domain that meets the following requirements:
A group of administrators must be notified when an error is written to the System log on the servers that run Exchange Server 2013.
A group of administrators must be notified when a specific event is written to The Application log on the servers that run SQL Server 20l4.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, enable audit collection.
B. From Operations Manager, implement two monitors.
C. From Computer Management, implement one event subscription.
D. From Operations Manager, implement two rules.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Your network contains the following:
20 HyperV hosts
100 virtual machines
2,000 client computers
You need to recommend an update infrastructure design to meet the following requirements: Deploy updates to all of the virtual machines and the client computers from a single console. Generate reports that contain a list of the applied updates. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and a second WSUS server that is integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
B. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager, a second WSUS server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), and a third standalone WSUS server.
D. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: D

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