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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a server deployment strategy for the main office that meets the server deployment requirements.
What should you recommend installing in the main office?
A. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
B. The Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK)
C. The Express Deployment Tool (EDT)
D. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
WDS is a server role that enables you to remotely deploy Windows operating systems. You can use it to set up new computers by using a network-based installation. This means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD, USB drive, or DVD.
70-413
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the 70-413 pdf Active Directory site topology to support on the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A new site
B. A new site link bridge
C. A new site link
D. A new subnet
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Scenario:
The forest contains a child domain for each office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
* Sites overview
Sites in AD DS represent the physical structure, or topology, of your network. AD DS uses network topology information, which is stored in the directory as site, subnet, and site link objects, to build the most efficient replication topology. The replication topology itself consists of the set of connection objects that enable inbound replication from a source domain controller to the destination domain controller that stores the connection object. The Knowledge Consistency Checker (KCC) creates these connection objects automatically on each domain controller.

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory environment to support the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
C. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
From case study:
* Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the 70-413 vce branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a change to the Active Directory environment to support the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
C. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
D. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
* Scenario:
The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend an IPAM management solution for the Operators groups. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains. Add the computers used by the members of the Operators group to the IPAM server.
B. Modify the membership of the IPAM Administrators group and the WinRMRemoteWMIUsers_ group on the IPAM server.
C. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet and modify the membership of the WinRMRemoteWMRJsers_ group on the IPAM server.
D. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet on the IPAM server. Run the Invoke- IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Scenario: Ensure that the 70-413 dumps members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.

QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

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The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a ‘proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions. The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
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A. Disable auto summary on the EIGRP process
B. Enable EIGRP on the FastEthernet0/0 and FastEthernet0/1 interface using the no passive-interface command.
C. Change the AS number on the EIGRP routing process from 1 to 10 to much the AS number used on DSW1 and DSW2.
D. Under the EIGRP process, delete the network 10.1.4.0 0.0.0.255 command and enter the network 10.1.4.4 0.0.0.252 and 10.1.4.8 0.0.0.252 commands.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 28
In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list managed segments.
On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.
Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?
A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way *
of managing space within a segment. It completely eliminates any need to specify and tune the pctused,freelists, and freelist groups storage parameters for
schema objects created in the tablespace. If any of these attributes are specified, they are ignored.
Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a *
replacement for traditional freelists management which used one-way linked-lists to manage free blocks with tables and indexes. ASSM is commonly called
“bitmap freelists” because that is how Oracle implement the internal data structures for free block management.

Note:

*
Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data buffer pool (db_cache_size, etc.).

*
The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention tuning, adding freelists (or ASSM), and adding missing indexes.
QUESTION 29
Examine this command:
SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (`SH’, `CUSTOMERS’, `PUBLISH’, `false’); Which three statements are true about the effect of this command?
A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.

Correct Answer: CDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure

This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.

*
Example: Using Pending Statistics
Assume many modifications have been made to the employees table since the last time statistics were gathered. To ensure that the cost-based optimizer is still picking the best plan, statistics should be gathered once again; however, the user is concerned that new statistics will cause the optimizer to choose bad plans when the current ones are acceptable. The user can do the following:
EXEC DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘hr’, ’employees’, ‘PUBLISH’, ‘false’);
By setting the employees tables publish preference to FALSE, any statistics gather from now on will not be automatically published. The newly gathered statistics will be marked as pending.
QUESTION 30
Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle database (source):

Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command?
A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user on the source database with the DATAPUMP_EXD_FULL_DATABASE role.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same platform with the same endianness.
E. The path of data files on the target database must be the same as that on the source database.
F. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
1.Ensure that the exporting user at the source database has the DAT- APUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role. This user must be specified when you create the data- base link.
2.
Ensure that the importing user at the destination database has the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role.

3.
Create and test a database link between the source and destination databases.

4.
Run the following command, where import_user is the username for the importing user, and db_link is the name of the data base link owned by the exporting user: IMPDP import_user NETWORK_LINK=db_link FULL=Y;
QUESTION 31
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database?
A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The benefits of Oracle Multitenant are brought by implementing a pure deployment choice. The following list calls out the most compelling examples.
*
High consolidation density. (E)
The many pluggable databases in a single multitenant container database share its memory and background processes, letting you operate many more pluggable
databases on a particular platform than you can single databases that use the old architecture. This is the same benefit that schema-based consolidation brings.
*
Rapid provisioning and cloning using SQL.
*
New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades. (D, not B)
The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its many pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable
database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant container database at a different Oracle Database software version.
*
(C, not A) Manage many databases as one.
By consolidating existing databases as pluggable databases, administrators can manage many databases as one. For example, tasks like backup and disaster
recovery are performed at the multitenant container database level.
*
Dynamic between pluggable database resource management. In Oracle Database 12c, Resource Manager is extended with specific functionality to control the
competition for resources between the pluggable databases within a multitenant container database.
Note:
*
Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers reduce IT costs by simplifying consolidation, provisioning,
upgrades, and more. It is supported by a new architecture that allows a multitenant container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully
complements other options, including Oracle Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing database can be simply adopted, with no
change, as a pluggable database; and no changes are needed in the other tiers of the application.

Reference: 12c Oracle Multitenant
QUESTION 32
Examine the current value for the following parameters in your database instance:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 700M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M LOG_BUFFER = 200M
You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;
Which statement is true?
A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.
D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_MAX_SIZE.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
The SGA_TARGET parameter can be dynamically increased up to the value specified for the parameter, and it can also be reduced.
SGA_MAX_SIZE
*
Example:
For example, suppose you have an environment with the following configuration:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 512M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M In this example, the value of SGA_TARGET can be resized up to 1024M and can also be reduced until one or more of the automatically sized components reaches its minimum size. The exact value depends on environmental factors such as the number of CPUs on the system. However, the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE remains fixed at all times at 128M

*
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE Size of cache for 8K buffers

*
For example, consider this configuration:
SGA_TARGET = 512M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, increasing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16 M to 144M means that the 16M is taken away from the automatically sized components. Likewise,
reducing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16M to 112M means that the 16M is given to the automatically sized components.

QUESTION 33
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.
B. The PDB must be dosed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B, not A: The PDB must be closed before unplugging it.
D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference.
E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB’s datafiles can remain in place.
Reference: Oracle White Paper, Oracle Multitenant
QUESTION 34
Examine the following command:

CREATE TABLE (prod_id number(4),
Prod_name varchar2 (20),
Category_id number(30),
Quantity_on_hand number (3) INVISIBLE);

Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?

A. The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible column in the output.
B. The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.
C. Referential integrity constraint cannot be set on the invisible column.
D. The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.
E. A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
AB: You can make individual table columns invisible. Any generic access of a table does not show the invisible columns in the table. For example, the following operations do not display invisible columns in the output:
*
SELECT * FROM statements in SQL

*
DESCRIBE commands in SQL*Plus

*
%ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL

*
Describes in Oracle Call Interface (OCI)
Incorrect:
Not D: You can make invisible columns visible.
You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and you can later alter the table to make the same column visible.

Reference: Understand Invisible Columns

QUESTION 35
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.
You issue the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS; SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM; SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;
For which database users is the audit policy now active?
A. All users except SYS
B. All users except SCOTT
C. All users except sys and SCOTT
D. All users except sys, system, and SCOTT Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
If you run multiple AUDIT statements on the same unified audit policy but specify different EXCEPT users, then Oracle Database uses the last exception user list, not any of the users from the preceding lists. This means the effect of the earlier AUDIT POLICY … EXCEPT statements are overridden by the latest AUDIT POLICY … EXCEPT statement.
Note:
*
The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default, this policy is not enabled.

*
You can use the keyword ALL to audit all actions. The following example shows how to audit all actions on the HR.EMPLOYEES table, except actions by user pmulligan.
Example Auditing All Actions on a Table CREATE AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol ACTIONS ALL ON HR.EMPLOYEES;
AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol EXCEPT pmulligan;
Reference: Oracle Database Security Guide 12c, About Enabling Unified Audit Policies

QUESTION 36
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema by issuing the following command:
$> sqlldr hr/hr@pdb table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command?

A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that establish session characteristics.
QUESTION 37
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:

After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value You can alter the default displayed values for full Data Redaction polices. By default, 0 is the redacted value when Oracle Database performs full redaction (DBMS_REDACT.FULL) on a column of the NUMBER data type. If you want to change it to another value (for example, 7), then you can run the DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure to modify this value. The modification applies to all of the Data Redaction policies in the current database instance. After you modify a value, you must restart the database for it to take effect.
Note:
*
The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or an application.

*
UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES Procedure
This procedure modifies the default displayed values for a Data Redaction policy for full redaction.
*
After you create the Data Redaction policy, it is automatically enabled and ready to redact data.
*
Oracle Data Redaction enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or applications. You can redact column data by using one of the following methods:
/ Full redaction. / Partial redaction. / Regular expressions. / Random redaction. / No redaction.
Reference: Oracle Database Advanced Security Guide 12c, About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value
QUESTION 38
You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the sales schema for at least three years.
Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.
Which two must you do to track the transactions?

A. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking. Correct Answer: DE

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
E: By default, flashback archiving is disabled for any table. You can enable flashback archiving for a table if you have the FLASHBACK ARCHIVE object privilege on the Flashback Data Archive that you want to use for that table.
D: Creating a Flashback Data Archive / Create a Flashback Data Archive with the CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE statement, specifying the following: Name of the Flashback Data Archive Name of the first tablespace of the Flashback Data Archive (Optional) Maximum amount of space that the Flashback Data Archive can use in the first tablespace / Create a Flashback Data Archive named fla2 that uses tablespace tbs2, whose data will be retained for two years: CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla2 TABLESPACE tbs2 RETENTION 2 YEAR;
QUESTION 39
Your are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data
types, and the table’s indexes, to another tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the application?

A. Oracle Data Pump.
B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the indexes.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition. Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
*
Oracle Database provides a mechanism to make table structure modifications without significantly affecting the availability of the table. The mechanism is called online table redefinition. Redefining tables online provides a substantial increase in availability compared to traditional methods of redefining tables.

*
To redefine a table online:
Choose the redefinition method: by key or by rowid
*
By key–Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo- primary keys are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints. For this method, the versions of the tables before and after redefinition should have the same primary key columns. This is the preferred and default method of redefinition.

*
By rowid–Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named M_ROW$$ is added to the post-redefined version of the table. It is recommended that this column be dropped or marked as unused after the redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to 10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of redefinition automatically sets this column unused. You can then use the ALTER TABLE … DROP UNUSED COLUMNS statement to drop it.

You cannot use this method on index-organized tables. Note:

*
When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in this manner enables you to change storage characteristics or move to a new tablespace. Rebuilding an index based on an existing data source removes intra-block fragmentation. Compared to dropping the index and using the CREATE INDEX statement, re-creating an existing index offers better performance.
Incorrect:
Not E: Edition-based redefinition enables you to upgrade the database component of an application while it is in use, thereby minimizing or eliminating down time.

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Latest Full Training Microsoft 70-410 Exam Questions

70-410 Exam

QUESTION 40
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. In the main office, you have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured to use an IPv4 address only. You need to assign an IPv6 address to Server1. The IP address must be private and routable. Which IPv6 address should you assign to Server1?
A. fe80:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
B. ff00:3fff:65df:145c:dca8::82a4
C. 2001:ab32:145c::32cc:401b
D. fd00:ab32:14:ad88:ac:58:abc2:4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8.
You deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install a new client-server application named App1 on Server1 and on the client
computers.

The client computers must use TCP port 6444 to connect to App1 on Server1. Server1 publishes the information of App1 to an intranet server named Server2 by
using TCP port 3080. You need to ensure that all of the client computers can connect to App1. The solution must ensure that the application can connect to
Server2.
Which Windows Firewall rule should you create on Server1?

A. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
B. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 3080
C. an outbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
D. an inbound rule to allow a connection to TCP port 6444
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains a server named Server1.
You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1. You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by
using the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Set-WSManQuickConfig
B. Set-WSManInstance
C. Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
D. Set-BCAuthentication
E. Install-PswaWebApplication
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 43
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All user accounts in the sales department reside in an organizational unit (OU) named
OU1. You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 is used to deploy a logon script to all of the users in the sales department.
You discover that the logon script does not run when the sales users log on to their computers.
You open Group Policy Management as shown in the exhibit.
You need to ensure that the logon script in GPO1 is applied to the sales users. What should you do?
A. Enforce GPO1.
B. Modify the link order of GPO1.
C. Modify the Delegation settings of GPO1.
D. Enable the link of GPO1.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
You have a server named Server 1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server 1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
You have fixed-size VHD named Files.vhd.
You need to make the contents in Files.vhd available to several virtual machines. The solution must meet the following requirements:

-Ensure that if the contents are changed on any virtual machine, the changes are not reflected on the other virtual machines.
-Minimize the amount of disk space used.
What should you do?
A. Create a fixed-size VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
B. Convert Files.vhd to a dynamically expanding VHD?
C. Create a dynamically expanding VHDX. Transfer the information from Files.vhd to the new VHDX file.
D. Create differencing VHDs that use Files.vhd as the parent disk.
Correct Answer: D

70-410 Exam

QUESTION 45
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012
R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts.
Servers are restarted only occasionally.
You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
What should you do?

A. Run dsquery computer and specify the -stalepwd parameter
B. Run dsquery server and specify the -o parameter.
C. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the lastlogon property.
D. Run Get-ADComputer and specify the SearchScope parameter
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Your network contains three servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The servers are configured as shown in the following table (click Exhibit). Server3 is
configured to obtain an IP address automatically.
You need to ensure that Server3 only receives an IP address from Server1. The IP address must always be the same.
Which two tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create an exclusion on Server1.
B. Create a filter on Server1.
C. Create a reservation on Server2
D. Create a reservation on Server1
E. Create a filter on Server2.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 47
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2
and a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8. DC1 is configured as a DHCP server as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) Computer1
is configured to obtain an IP address automatically. You need to ensure that Computer1 can receive an IP address from DC1.
What should you do?
A. Disable the Allow filters.
B. Disable the Deny filters
C. Activate Scope [10.1.1.0] Contoso.com.
D. Authorize dc1.contoso.com.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 that has the DNS Server server
role installed. Server1 hosts a primary zone for contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server2 that is configured to use Server1 as its
primary DNS server. From Server2, you run nslookup.exe as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that when you run Nslookup, the correct name of the default server is displayed.
What should you do?
A. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server1, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list
B. On Server1, modify the Security settings of the contoso.com zone
C. On Server1, create a reverse lookup zone.
D. From Advanced TCP/IP Settings on Server2, add contoso.com to the DNS suffix list
Correct Answer: C

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The New Cisco 200-101 VCE Free CCNA Study Guide

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QUESTION 16
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center

E. MAN

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Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

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This post analyzes the new Cisco 100-105 exam topics in a way that should be helpful for folks who have been working towards the old exam. I may come back in a few months with a post about the exam on the whole, for those who did not care about the old exam. But everything I write here is focused on the changes, and not on what has not changed.

For context, keep in mind that Cisco has provided two paths to CCNA R&S certification since 2003: A two exam path and a one exam path. Using current terminology, to become CCNA R&S certified, you can either take and pass the ICND1 and ICND2 exams or the CCNA exam. Then, from a content perspective:

ICND1 + ICND2 = CCNA

In this post and the Part 2 post, I will focus on the transition to the new exam topics, with the following main points:

  • Totally New to ICND1: Topics not in the old CCNA R&S exam topics (that is, topics in neither ICND1 nor ICND2), but are now in the exam topics for the Cisco 100-105 exam.
  • Moved from ICND2: Topics formerly in the old ICND2 200-101 exam topics, but now moved to the new ICND1 100-105 exam.
  • Troubleshooting Performance Levels: Cisco bumped the performance level of the verbs for several subject areas up to “troubleshoot”; this section details those topics.
  • Topics Removed from CCNA and ICND1: Topics that were listed in the old Cisco 100-105 exam topics and appear to be completely removed from the new exams.

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QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 16
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B

 

 

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QUESTION 19
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 20
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Correct Answer: BG
QUESTION 21
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the same remote network. If there are no static routes to the destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.154.154.1
C. 172.16.5.1
D. 192.168.5.3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 24
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthernet 0/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
B. O 208.149.23.64 [110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
C. O 208.149.23.64 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthernet 0/0
D. O 208.149.23.64 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial 1/0 O 208.149.23.96 [110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial 1/0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers.
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected.
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C.
D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?

A. The router will drop the packet.
B. The router will return the packet to its source.
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
D. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 31
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 33
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C
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