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QUESTION 90
Refer to the exhibit
100-105 dumps

If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed?
A. Router1>
B. Router1#
C. Router2>
D. Router2#
100-105 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 91
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 92
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 93
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.) Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 94
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 95
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the advertisement of VRF routes on a 7750 SR?
A. By default, a 7750 SR does not advertise all routes in the VRF to a CE router.
B. The default 7750 SR behavior describes all routes in a VRF that are advertised to other PE routers.
C. By default, a 7750 SR does not advertise all routes in the VRF to other PE routers.
D. By default, a 7750 SR advertises all routes in the VRF to a CE router.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 96
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?
A. Multiple MP-BGP sessions are required to carry VPN-IPv4 and VPN-IPv6 routes.
B. PE routers must support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses; customer routers can use either one
C. In 6VPE, MP-BGP is used to advertise IPv6 prefixes and the associated VPRN label.
D. In 6VPE, the provider core routers are IPv6-unaware.
E. All of the above statements are true.
F. All of the above statements are false.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 97
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?
A. 6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 information over an IPv4 MPLS infrastructure.
B. Customers connected to 6VPE could run native IPv6 or IPv4.

C. On the PE router, the next hop for a VPN IPv6 address is an IPv6 address, regardless of the nature of the network between the PEs.
D. 6VPE requires an IPv6-aware MPLS core.
E. Both C and D are false.
F. All of the above statements are true.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 98
Which of the following is NOT a service offered on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. IES
B. VPWS
C. VPLS
D. VPRN
E. L2TP
100-105 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 99
Which of the following best describes a VPRN?
A. Layer 3 direct Internet access service.
B. Layer 2 point-to-point service.
C. Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service.
D. Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 100
Which of the following describes a service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. A logical entity that provides a uniform, end-to-end configuration, management and billing model for provisioning either Internet or VPN connectivity.
B. Provides connectivity between customer access points.
C. A service that can either be local or distributed.
D. All of the above
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 101
Once a service has been created with a customer association, it is possible to change the customer association.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 102
What needs to be configured before a SAP appears? (Choose 2)
A. Configuring the physical port in access mode.
B. Configuring the physical port in network mode.
C. Enabling the port using the no shutdown command.
D. Ports are enabled by default, thus no need to use the no shutdown command.

100-105 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 103
All services mapped to an SDP use the same transport encapsulation type (either GRE or MPLS)
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 104
A Cpipe supports both structured and unstructured frames.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
100-105 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 105
A service provider wishes to configure a Layer 2 service that will forward customer VLAN tags. When configuring an SDP for the service, which vc-type will forward service delimiting tags on the ingress PE?
A. vc-type ether
B. vc-type vlan
C. vc-type dot1q
D. vc-type null
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 106
Which service type would be used to provide a bi-directional Layer 2 connection of TDM circuits over an IP/MPLS network?
A. A-pipe
B. E-pipe
C. I-pipe
D. F-pipe
E. C-pipe
100-105 exam Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 107
Which of the following SAP encapsulations support multiple services on a port? (Choose 3)
A. dot1q
B. null
C. qinq
D. atm
E. ipcp
F. bcp-null
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 108
When a tagged packet is received on a SAP configured with dot1q encapsulation, the VLAN tag must match the value configured on the SAP in order to be forwarded.
A. TRUE

B. FALSE
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 109
In a Layer 2 VPN service, the FCS is stripped when a customer packet arrives at the ingress PE and regenerated on egress.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 110
By default, what does a PE do to support VPLS services for different customers? (Choose 2)
A. MAC learning.
B. Maintain a different Forwarding Data Base for each service
C. ARP mediation.
D. Maintain a different Routing Information Base for each service.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 111
What is the minimum Ethernet physical network MTU required for a Layer 2 service on a GRE encapsulated SDP with a service MTU of 1514?
A. 1514
B. 1526
C. 1548
D. 1556
E. 1536
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 112
A network technician needs to set up a local mirror to replicate traffic for examination with a protocol analyzer. The analyzer is on port 1/1/4 of his service router. Which of the following configuration steps is required?
A. A mirror source listing port 1/1/4.
B. A mirror destination listing port 1/1/4.
C. A remote source command indicating the IP address of the service router he is configuring a local mirror on.
D. Verification that his IP/MPLS infrastructure is in place
E. None of the above.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 113
Which of the following best describes the label stack for a packet in the VPRN context?
A. An outer label and a transport label.
B. An inner label and a service label.
C. A transport label and a service label.
D. An MPLS transport label
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 114
Which of the following statements about VPRN is NOT true? (Choose 2)
A. VPRN is an IP service that connects multiple sites in a single routed domain over the provider managed IP/MPLS network.
B. Each VPRN consists of a set of customer sites that must connect to the same PE router
C. In a VPRN service, each customer router becomes a routing peer to other customer routers
D. VPRN provides customer routers with transparent IP connectivity without knowledge of the MPLS core
100-105 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 115
A VPRN service is configured with BGP used as the CE-PE routing protocol. What address families are required on the PE-CE BGP session?
A. VPN-IPv4 address families are required in order for routes to be exchanged with the PE.
B. Only default IPv4 address families are required since the CE is not aware of the VPRN service
C. Either IPv4 or VPN-IPv4 address families can be configured on the PE-CE BGP session
D. An IPv4 address family configuration is required for the PE-PE configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 116
Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the VPN-IPv4 address family? (Choose 2)
A. When a PE router receives an IPv4 prefix from its local CE it creates a VPN-IPv4 prefix.
B. The route distinguisher (RD) is appended to the IPv4 prefix to form a 16 byte VPN-IPv4 prefix.
C. VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish multiple routes with the same prefixes originated from distinct customers
D. VPN-IPv4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.
E. In VPRN, data traffic is carried in VPN-IPv4 packets.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 117
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?
A. 6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 information over an IPv4 MPLS infrastructure.
B. Customers connected to 6VPE could run native IPv6 or IPv4.
C. On the PE router, the next hop for a VPN IPv6 address is an IPv6 address, regardless of the nature of the network between the PEs.
D. 6VPE requires an IPv6-aware MPLS core.
E. Both C and D are false.
F. All of the above statements are true.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 118
Service tunnels and transport tunnels are bidirectional and only require the operator to configure the tunnel on one router.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 119
A transport tunnel can either use an MPLS or GRE encapsulation.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 120
Which of the following must be configured when configuring an Epipe service? (Choose 4)
A. Configuring an Epipe service with a customer ID
B. Defining a SAP or SAPs.
C. Binding to an SDP if it is a distributed service.
D. Enabling the service using the no shutdown command.
E. Creating and assigning an IP filter to the SAP.
F. Configuring QoS parameters
100-105 vce Correct Answer: ABCD

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QUESTION 13
Which two methods can an administrator use to configure Web Interface in high availability mode? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Cluster services
B. NetScaler Load Balancing feature
C. Windows Load Balancing services
D. NetScaler Access Gateway feature
1Y0-A22 exam Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
A XenApp Administrator plans to use Citrix NetScaler to load balance Web Interface servers. Which persistence setting should the administrator choose to correctly configure high availability for Web Interface?
A. NOCE
B. DESTIP
C. SOURCEIP
D. COOKIEINSERT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator of a 100-server farm needs to apply Citrix and vendor hotfixes on a monthly basis, and a server restart is always required. The administrator needs to automate this process but does NOT have a third party tool available. Which two tasks should the administrator complete to guarantee that updates will be applied successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Prohibit logons and notify users.
B. Restart the server and install hotfixes.
C. Apply application load evaluators and notify users.
D. Log off all users from servers and schedule a .EXE setup file installation.
1Y0-A22 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Scenario: The Citrix Administrator of a large farm needs to perform a health check after a scheduled update window. The health check should alert the administrator when the server is unavailable to users. Which action must the administrator take to perform a health check after a scheduled update window?
A. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to verify the applied updates.
B. Use MFCOM to check applied updates and enabled logons.
C. Use MFCOM scripts to verify enabled logons and open Citrix ports.
D. Use PowerShell SDK scripts to check enabled logons and open Citrix ports.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Scenario: A new administrator has been asked to ensure that all servers meet the minimum required patching level. A test server has been used to confirm that all patches can be deployed to the production servers. Testing has identified that production servers are NOT at the same patch level. Which action can the administrator take to identify which patches are required on each production server?
A. Use the Citrix Computer policy wizard.
B. Use the Citrix AppCenter History node.
C. Use the Citrix AppCenter Configuration Tools node.
D. Use the Prepare this server for imaging and provisioning task.
1Y0-A22 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Scenario: A XenApp Administrator needs to deploy a small MSI package across all XenApp servers. This package requires a restart which needs to be scheduled to ensure that all servers do NOT restart at once. Which action must the administrator take to fulfill the requirement?
A. Set up Installation Manager.
B. Configure Health Monitoring and Recovery.
C. Create a maintenance policy in the AppCenter console.
D. Use the XenApp Server Role Manager to install Installation Manager.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which component should an administrator monitor to verify if the XenApp servers are accepting ICA connections?
A. ICA Listener
B. Logon Monitor
C. Citrix IMA Service
D. Citrix Streaming Service
1Y0-A22 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
A XenApp Administrator needs to set up monitoring between a Web Interface server and the back-end XenApp servers.  Which component should the administrator monitor?
A. ICA Listener
B. Citrix IMA Service
C. Local Host Cache
D. Citrix XML Service
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Scenario: Some users in remote offices complain that Citrix sessions are slow, and the network administrator has asked the Citrix Administrator to determine whether any data transmission errors are occurring for a group of sample users. In this environment, EdgeSight, Branch Repeater and Session Reliability are NOT used. How can the Citrix Administrator determine the extent of data transmission errors based on the sample users?
A. Configure Multi-Stream for sample users.
B. Open the Citrix Connection Center for sample users.
C. Enable ICA round trip calculators for idle connections for sample users.
D. Change the active session limit to something other than Never in the ICA-TCP settings.
1Y0-A22 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Scenario: A user reports that a hosted desktop session is sporadically slow. To assess the problem, an administrator reviews the Client Connection Status of the user and observes the information displayed in the attached exhibit.
Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.

1Y0-A22 dumps

What can the administrator assess about the network based on the information in the exhibit?
A. ICA network traffic is functioning normally.
B. The white receive bar indicates there is a problem receiving data.
C. Incoming data is constrained as evidenced by the number of incoming versus outgoing frames.
D. Outgoing data is constrained as evidenced by four times the number of incoming bytes/frames.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
Scenario: A remote user has reported that published applications are occasionally slow or choppy. The administrator thinks that it may be a network issue, and requests that the user send a Client Connection Status screenshot which is shown in the attached exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the attached exhibit.
1Y0-A22 dumps

Which conclusion can the administrator make based on the information in the attached exhibit?
A. ICA network traffic is functioning normally.
B. The white bar indicates that there may be a problem with incoming data.
C. Outgoing data is constrained as evidenced by the number of bytes/frame.
D. An older version of the Citrix Receiver may be causing ICA traffic to function less optimally.

1Y0-A22 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
A governmental auditor was assigned to determine reasons why the students in one region scored significantly higher on education evaluation tests than did the students in another region. Previous research showed that there is a direct correlation between public financial support and student results. Which of the following is most likely to explain the difference in the regional results?
A. The more successful region spends 30 percent more money on education than does the other region.
B. A higher percentage of the general tax fund is spent on education in the more successful region than in the other region.
C. The more successful region spends more money per student on education than does the other region.
D. The more successful region has increased educational spending by an average of 10 percent each year for the last three years, whereas the other region’s increase averaged only three percent.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which of the following would constitute a violation of the IIA Code of Ethics?
A. An internal auditor, who has recently joined the organization, has accepted an assignment to audit the electronics manufacturing division. The auditor previously served as senior auditor for the external audit of that division and has audited many electronics companies during the past two years.
B. An internal auditor has accepted an assignment to audit the warehousing function six months from now. The auditor has no expertise in that area but has signed up for courses in warehousing that will be completed before the assignment begins.
C. An internal auditor has no ambitions for promotion and has not engaged in training or other professional development activities during the last three years. The auditor’s performance assessments indicate consistent quality of work.
D. An internal auditor discovered an internal financial fraud during the year, and the financial statements were adjusted to properly reflect the loss associated with the fraud. The auditor discussed the fraud with the external auditor during the external auditor’s review of the working papers detailing the incident.
1Y0-A22 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
An auditor decides to perform an inventory turnover analysis for both raw materials inventory and finished goods inventory. The analysis would be potentially useful in:
I. Identifying products for which management has not been attuned to changes in market demand.
II. Identifying potential problems in purchasing activities.
III. Identifying obsolete inventory.

A. III only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
An internal auditor provided the following statement about division A’s performance during the month: “Because supplies of raw material X were scarce, division A’s profits declined by 15 percent.” Which of the following can be validly concluded from the auditor’s statement?
I. Division A’s production level declined by 15 percent.
II. Division A could have sold more products than it produced.
III. Division A usually sells all of the products that it produces.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
1Y0-A22 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
As part of an operational audit of the shipping department, an auditor selected a sample of 45 daily shipping logs from the department’s files. On 44 of the days, the log contained a sufficient number of shipments to meet the department’s daily quota. Based on this test, the auditor concluded that the shipping department was effective at meeting its quotas. Which of the following is true about the auditor’s conclusion?
A. The number of items selected for testing is inadequate to justify the conclusion.
B. The shipping department is effective in meeting its responsibilities.
C. This conclusion would negate any need to perform tests of efficiency.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
An internal audit activity implemented an integrated test facility to test payroll processing. The auditors identified the key controls and processing steps built into the computer program and developed test data to test them. The auditors submitted test transactions throughout the year and did not find any differences in their test results. The auditors can conclude that:
A. The system is properly capturing the hours worked by employees during the year and the hours have been properly submitted to payroll and processed correctly.
B. All employees were correctly paid during the year and their pay was correctly computed.
C. The computer application and its control procedures were processing payroll transactions correctly during the past year.
D. All of the above.
1Y0-A22 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
A code of ethics within the internal auditing profession is necessary in order to:
A. Reduce the likelihood that members of the profession will be sued for substandard work.
B. Ensure that all members of the profession perform at approximately the same level of competence.
C. Provide guidance to internal auditors in their service to others.

D. Require members of the profession to exhibit loyalty in all matters pertaining to the affairs of their organization.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
An auditor is scheduled to audit payroll controls for a company which has recently outsourced its processing to an information service bureau. What action should the auditor take, considering the outsourcing decision?
A. Review the controls over payroll in both the company and the service bureau.
B. Review only the company’s controls over data sent to and received from the service bureau.
C. Review only the controls over payments to the service bureau based on the contract.
D. Cancel the engagement because the processing is being performed outside of the organization.
1Y0-A22 dumps Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
810-403 exam Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

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QUESTION 3
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? (Choose two.)
A. Advanced Routing

B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which two options are part of the five steps approach needed to conduct a stakeholder analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Define ways to move stakeholders from their current to future position.
B. Identifycustomer stakeholders.
C. Define absolute power and interest of stakeholders.
D. Generate consensus among stakeholders.
810-403 pdf Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
810-403 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:

810-403 dumps

810-403 dumps

QUESTION 9
Which framework can give the best insight and visual flow into how a customer\’s functions work together, to go from parts inventory through shipped product?
A. business model canvas
B. porters value chain
C. critical success factor
D. organization chart
810-403 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
810-403 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 12
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION13  A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host? (Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
810-403 pdf Answer: B,C
QUESTION 14 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department. The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made. Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B
QUESTION 15 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories. A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred from Element manager to CallServer.
810-403 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution. They plan to have the system support 50,000 users. Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)

D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D
QUESTION 17 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
810-403 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 18 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller card with one high density DSP daughter board. How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D
QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099). Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customers requirements?
A. 2001-2008

B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
810-403 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 20 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D
QUESTION 21 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed. What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots. D.
The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
810-403 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 22 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking issue. Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization’s configuration management process?
A. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Chief Information Officer
70-532 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief Information Officer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then working
within a budget to implement the plan
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3
The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE) play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes.
B. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation (C&A).
D. An ISSO takes part in the development activities that are required to implement system changes.
E. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
70-532 dumps 
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A) process?
A. Information system owner
B. Authorizing Official
C. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102

C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
70-532 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are identified by DIACAP? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Accreditation
B. Identification
C. System Definition
D. Verification
E. Validation
F. Re-Accreditation
Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 7
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Role-Based Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
70-532 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following refers to an information security document that is used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks: Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data. Performs data restoration from the backups whenever required. Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established information classification policy. What is the role played by James in the organization?
A. Manager
B. Owner
C. Custodian
D. User
70-532 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You are creating a set of load-balanced virtual machines (VMs) that are hosted on Azure. You run the following Windows PowerShell script. Line numbers are included for reference only.
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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
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QUESTION 11
You are developing a messaging solution for a financial services company named Adatum. The solution must integrate an application named Enrollment and an application named Activation. The Enrollment application is used to enroll new customers. The Activation application is used to activate accounts for new customers. You need to ensure that each message that the Enrollment application sends is stored in a queue for ten minutes before the Activation application uses the message. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 12
You have a cloud service that runs an external process that is named MyStartupTask.cmd. The cloud service runs this external process when the web role starts. The external process writes information to the Windows registry. You set the value of an environment variable named MyID to the deployment ID for the current web role instance. The external process must complete writing the information to the Windows registry before the web role starts to accept web traffic. You need to configure the cloud service. How should you complete the relevant markup? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 13
You deploy a new version of a cloud-service application to a staging slot. The application consists of one web role. You prepare to swap the new version of the application into the production slot. Your Azure account has access to multiple Azure subscriptions. You load the Azure PowerShell cmdlets into the Windows PowerShell command shell. The command shell is NOT configured for certificate-based authentication. You must use the Windows PowerShell command window to configure the application. You need to create five instances of the web role. How should you configure the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
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[2017 New Citrix Version] Prepare for Best Citrix 1Y0-250 Dumps Study Guide Youtube With Accurate Answers (From Google Drive)

Do you need to pass Citrix 1Y0-250 dumps before taking CCA-N certification? “Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions” is the name of Citrix 1Y0-250 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Citrix exam. Prepare for best Citrix 1Y0-250 dumps study guide youtube with accurate answers. In the IT market, CCA N 1Y0-250 Certification exam is the way to success.

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Exam Code: 1Y0-250
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions
Updated: Sep 12, 2017
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION NO: 1
A company uses various pre-approved user devices in the environment, including mobile devices
running iOS and Android operating systems.
Which two types of policies could an administrator use on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server to
allow access to these mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. Rewrite policies, including endpoint analysis scans
B. Session policies, excluding the endpoint analysis scans
C. Authorization policies, including the endpoint analysis scans
D. Pre-authentication policies, excluding the endpoint analysis scans
1Y0-250 exam Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 2
An administrator plans to configure a NetScaler Gateway virtual server to be able to provide
SmartAccess, endpoint analysis and network layer tunneling features.
Which client option should the administrator use for this scenario?
A. Offline plug-in
B. Online plug-in
C. Citrix Receiver
D. Access Gateway plug-in
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator is planning a NetScaler Gateway implementation and must ensure that users are
only allowed to access the company resources 1Y0-250 dumps if a specific file is present on the endpoint device
they connect from.
Which component should the administrator include within the plan?

A. An SSL Offload virtual server
B. A double-hop NetScaler Gateway virtual server
C. A Basic mode NetScaler Gateway virtual server
D. A SmartAccess mode NetScaler Gateway virtual server
 Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Which information is required to license a NetScaler VPX 1000?
A. NSIP
B. MAC address
C. NetScaler host name
D. Citrix License Server host name
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
An administrator created a service for a Web Interface server that is encrypted by an SSL
certificate.
Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to create a monitor
that will check the Web Interface by logging on to it with a test user’s credentials?
A. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted
B. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password [email protected] -secure YES
C. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password [email protected] -destPort 443
D. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath “/Citrix/XenApp” –
userName user -domain DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted -secure YES
1y0-250 study guide Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Scenario: An administrator configured a NetScaler Gateway session policy named spol_ICAP. The
administrator needs to bind the policy to ensure that it is evaluated only when users of the ICAP
security group log on to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server named vsrv_AGEE.
Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to meet the needs of
the scenario?
A. bind vpn vserver vsrv_AGEE ICAP
B. bind aaa group ICAP -policy spol_ICAP
C. bind aaa group ICAP -policy spol_ICAP -global OFF
D. bind vpn vserver vsrv_AGEE -policy spol_ICAP -priority 1
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
An administrator plans to use only Citrix Receiver for XenDesktop remote access through a
NetScaler Gateway device.
Which type of policy should the administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A. Session
B. Authentication
C. Clientless access
D. Pre-authentication
1y0-250 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Which configuration option should an administrator select to pass users’ credentials to a file share
in a NetScaler Gateway environment?

A. Local LAN-Access
B. Single sign-on to a domain
C. Single sign-on with Windows
D. Single sign-on to Web applications
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Scenario: An administrator has an existing SSL certificate that is installed and used on a Microsoft
Windows IIS server. The administrator exported the certificate, including the private key, to a PFX
file and now wants to use that certificate for SSL Offloading on NetScaler.
Which two methods could the administrator use to import the certificate on NetScaler? (Choose
two.)
A. Import PKCS#12.
B. Change advanced SSL settings.
C. Use the Server Certificate Wizard.
D. Convert the certificate to PEM format.
1y0-250 vce Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 10
An administrator needs to install a certificate from the NetScaler onto a Microsoft Windows IIS
server.
Which action should the administrator complete before the certificate can be imported on the IIS
server?
A. Select Export PKCS#12 and copy the file to Windows.
B. Copy the certificate file from /nsconfig/ssl to Windows.
C. Copy the certificate file and the key file from /nsconfig/ssl to Windows.
D. Manage Certificates / Keys / CSRs and download the certificate file to Windows.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
Scenario: For auditing requirements, NetScaler administrators are required to use their Active
Directory accounts to log on to NetScaler. All NetScaler administrators belong to the NSAdmins
Active Directory group.
Which configuration must an administrator create in NetScaler to meet the requirements of the
scenario?
A. User accounts
B. NSAdmins group
C. Authorization policy
D. Service Groups policy
1y0-250 study guide Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Scenario: An administrator is implementing a two-factor authentication solution with an RSA
SecureID product. The administrator already has the server name and port number of the RSA
server.
Which additional information does the administrator need to configure RSA SecureID?
A. LDAP password
B. Firewall access rule
C. Authentication policy
D. RADIUS shared secret
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices only.
The administrator must include two-factor authentication.

Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor authentication for this
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Bind the RSA policy first.
B. Bind the LDAP policy first.
C. Create an authentication policy.
D. Create a pre-authentication policy.
1y0-250 dumps Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor
authentication solution for a XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake
of a software upgrade on the RADIUS infrastructure. During the outage, the administrator needs to
disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable users’ continued access to
published applications.
Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the
connected users?
A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy.
B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication.
C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
In which format should an administrator save the AppExpert Template files in order to import and
upload to the NetScaler?
A. XML
B. ASP
C. CSV
D. HTML
1Y0-250 vce Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-761
Exam Name: Querying Data with Transact-SQL (beta)
Q&As: 59

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QUESTION NO: 1
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <set>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int t[] ={ 3, 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 7, 9, 8, 0 };
vector<int>v(t, t+10);
multiset<int> s1(v.begin(),v.end());
s1.insert(v.begin(),v.end());
pair<multiset<int>::iterator,multiset<int>::iterator> range;
range = s1.equal_range(6);
while (range.first != range.second) {
cout<<*range.first<<” “; range.first++;
}
return 0;
}
A. program outputs: 6 6
B. program outputs: 5 7
C. program outputs: 5 5 6 6 7 7
D. program outputs: 5 5 7 7
E. program outputs: 1 1 6 6 5 5
70-761 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator()(const T & val ) {
out<<val<<” “;
}
};
struct Sequence {
int start;
Sequence(int start):start(start){}
int operator()() {
return start++ ; }};
int main() {
vector<int> v1(10);
generate(v1.rbegin(), v1.rend(), Sequence(1));
rotate(v1.begin(),v1.begin() + 1, v1.end() );
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<int>(cout) );cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
C. 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10
D. 1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <fstream>
#include <string>
#include <list>
#include <algorithm>
#include <iomanip>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v=0):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;}
operator int() const { return val; };};
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) {out<<setw(3)<<hex<<val; } }; int main () {
int t[] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};
fstream f(“test.out”, ios::trunc|ios::out);
list<B> l(t, t+10);
for_each(l.begin(), l.end(), Out<B>(f));
f.close();
f.open(“test.out”);
for( ; f.good() ; ) {
B i;
f>>i;
cout<<i<<” “;
}
f.close();
return 0;
}
A. file test.out will be opened writing
B. file test.out will be truncated
C. file test.out will be opened for reading
D. compilation error
E. program will display sequence 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
70-761 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the code below, assuming that you enter
the following sequence: one two three<enter>?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
string a;
cin>>a;
cout<<a<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program will output:
A. one
B. one two three
C. runtime exception
D. compilation error
E. the result is unspecified
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <map>
#include <vector>
#include <sstream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int t[] = { 3, 4, 2, 1, 0, 3, 4, 1, 2, 0 };
vector<int> v(t, t + 10);
multimap<int, string> m;
for (vector<int>::iterator i = v.begin(); i != v.end(); i++) {
stringstream s;s << *i << *i;
m.insert(pair<int, string>(*i, s.str()));
}
pair<multimap<int, string>::iterator, multimap<int, string>::iterator> range;
range = m.equal_range(2);
for (multimap<int, string>::iterator i = range.first; i != range.second; i++) {
cout << i?>first << ” “;
}
return 0;
}
The output will be:
A. 2 2
B. 1 2
C. 1 3
D. 2
E. 0 2
70-761 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val>v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<B> v1(10,0);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_intersection(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. compilation error
B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 0 0 0
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 2 1 0
D. 5 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
E. 1 2 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <list>
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{
int t[] = {1, 2 ,3 ,4 ,5};
vector<int>v1(t, t+5);
list<int>l1;
l1.assign(v1.end(), v1.begin());
for(int i=0; i<l1.size(); i++)
{
cout<<l1.at(i)<<” “;
}
cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. program displays 5 4 3 2 1
B. program displays 1 2 3 4 5
C. compilation error
D. segmentation fault runtime exception
70-761 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
class B { int val;
public:
B(int v):val(v){}
int getV() const {return val;} bool operator < (const B & v) const { return val<v.val;} };
ostream & operator <<(ostream & out, const B & v) { out<<v.getV(); return out;}
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
B t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
B t2[]={6,10,8,7,9};
vector<B> v1(10);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
merge(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<B>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 10 8 7 9
B. 3 2 4 1 5 6 7 8 9 10
C. 3 2 4 1 5 6 10 8 7 9
D. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
E. compilation error
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 9
Which sentence is correct about the code below?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a) : a(a) {}
int getA() const { return a; }
void setA(int a) { this?>a = a; }
/* Insert Code Here */
};
struct add10 { void operator()(A & a) { a.setA(a.getA() + 10); } };
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<A> v1(t, t + 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), add10());
vector<A>::iterator it = find(v1.begin(), v1.end(), A(7));
cout << it?>getA() << endl;
return 0;
}
A. it will compile and print 7
B. it will not compile
C. it will compile but the program result is unpredictable
D. adding code:
bool operator !=(const A & b) const {
if (this?>a != b.a) { return true; } return false; }
at Place 1 will allow the program to compile
70-761 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
void multiply (int a) {
a*2;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), multiply);
iter_swap(v1.begin(),t+9);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1
B. compilation error
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t[]={3,2,4,1,5,10,9,7,8,6};
vector<int> v1(t,t+10);
cout<<*max_element(v1.begin(), v1.end());
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 3
B. 1
C. 6
D. 10
E. compilation error
70-761 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<” “; } };
int main() {
int t1[]={3,2,4,1,5};
int t2[]={5,6,8,2,1};
vector<int> v1(10);
sort(t1, t1+5);
sort(t2, t2+5);
set_intersection(t1,t1+5,t2,t2+5,v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. compilation error
B. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 0 0 0
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 2 1 0
D. 1 1 2 2 3 4 5 5 6 8
E. 1 2 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 13
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <deque>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
vector<int> v1(t, t + 10);
deque<int> d1(t, t + 10);
set<int> s1(t, t + 10);
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction); // Line I
for_each(d1.begin(), d1.end(), myfunction); // Line II
for_each(s1.begin(), s1.end(), myfunction); // Line III
return 0;
}
A. program outputs: 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. program outputs: 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1 10 5 9 6 2 4 7 8 3 1
C. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D. compilation error in line I
E. compilation error in line III
70-761 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <map>
using namespace std;
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
map<int, int> m;
for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) {
m[i]=t[i];
}
pair<const int,int> p(5,5);
map<int, int>::iterator it = find(m.begin(), m.end(), p);
if (it != m.end())
{
cout<<it?>first<<endl;
}
else
{
cout<<“Not found!n”;
}
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 5
B. Not found!
C. 10
D. compilation error
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
#include <set>
using namespace std;
void myfunction(int i) {
cout << ” ” << i;
}
int main() {
int t[] = { 10, 5, 9, 6, 2, 4, 7, 8, 3, 1 };
set<int> s1(t, t+10);
vector<int> v1(s1.rbegin(), s1.rend());
swap_ranges(s1.begin(), s1.end(), v1.begin());
for_each(v1.begin(), v1.end(), myfunction);
for_each(s1.begin(), s1.end(), myfunction);
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. compilation error
C. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

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Exam Code: 1Y0-301
Exam Name: Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions
Q&As: 112

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1Y0-301 dumps

QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following defenses is legitimate for a U.S. firm operating in other countries for violating Title VII of the Civil Rights Act?
A. Treaty rights
B. Compulsory by foreign law
C. Is a non-extraterritorial law
D. Sovereignty immunity
1Y0-301 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
Which of the following is an intangible benefit of an international assignment?
A. Faster cross-border project completion times
B. Development of technical skills by local workers
C. Increased alignment of host country goals with overall company goals and objectives
D. Increased process efficiency
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 74
The success of an internal business process is evaluated by the extent to which that process meets the objectives of its function. Which of the following best describes this measurement of success?A. Management by objective
B. Effectiveness
C. Balanced screcard
D. Efficiency
1Y0-301 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
You are in the process of evaluating the current global compensation structure, which is based on headquarters biases. One of the remote offices has a very unique culture, Because their culture is diffuse often combining family, life, and work together, is universalistic, and focuses on the collective group. On the other hand, the other locations, including headquarters, have a culture that is particularistic, individualistic, and specifically divides work and family. Which of the following aaspects of the current structure might be affecting the unique location by the lack of adaptation to local pressurea?
A. Defined goals are clear, relevant, and ensure line of sight
B. Company has adopted an aggressive sales commission plan for each salesperson
C. Company has adopted a gainsharing plan
D. Every employment offer is deltailed in writing
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
A company is a four-year old start-up running on venture capital investment. Its initial assumption of a $2 billion market for its product has ahrunk to a $50 million market. Which of the following stategies is NOT a stategy that would be deliberated during the strategy development phase of the strategic planning process?
A. Plan to expand the capability of the R&D team to add value addea skill and knowledge to the company
B. Decide to move into a new market place
C. Evaluate potential merger and acquisition candidates to expand product mix and create a healtheir income stream
D. Reduce the number of different versions of the product into three main product lines
1Y0-301 pdf Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
Which of the following stages of the International Assignment Process model is the most critical in determining the success of an international assignment?
A. Pre-departure preparation
B. Assessment and selection
C. On assignment
D. Completing the assignment
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
You are responsible for hiring an entry-level engineer position in Bangalore, India. Which of the following recruitment sources is the least likely to be used?
A. Contingency-basis employment agencies
B. Recruiting at colleges? vocational schools
C. Employee referral program
D. Post jobs online on corporate website
1Y0-301 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following takes into account the effects of inflation when analyzing data from a pulished survey?
A. Aging
B. Measuring central tendency
C. Utilizing frequency distributions
D. Leveling
Answer: A
Explanation:QUESTION NO: 80
Which of the following is NOT a variable that differs between replacement planning and succession planning?
A. Identified skill requirements
B. Tools utilized
C. Information flow
D. Outlook into future (in terms of time)
1Y0-301 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following is the mostimportant step when outsourcing the sert up of a new HRIS (human resource information system)?
A. Select the best HRIS system with extensive capabilities
B. Prepare a detailed request for proposal (RFP)defininf desired specifications
C. Analyze the organization’s needs for building a HRIS system
D. Develop a complaint procedure for all work disputes
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following decribes an employee’s motivational potential, according to the job characteristics mode?
A. Ability to implement, responses, feedback
B. Motivation factors and incentives
C. Skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomu, feedback
D. job analysis, task significance
1Y0-301 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 83
A company decides to pursue an international assogment program to fill a new position in is newoffice in Beijing, China. With the assistance of the human professional, the management team has finalized a list of job-specific selection crieria of the ideal candidate for the role. During the interviewing process, the key selection tool utilized was role-playing. Role-playing was done entirely in Mandarin bases around common business and family situations an expatriate may face. In addition , role-playing was utilized to show how the candidate had successfully protrayedidentified success factors in past behavior. Which of the following selection methods was NOT utilized in this scenario?
A. Work sample
B. Situational assessments
C. Self-assessment
D. Interview
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Which of the following leadership theories believes that leadership styles should correspond to the
maturity of the employees?
A. Contingency theories
B. Situational theories
C. Behavioral theories
D. Trait theories
1Y0-301 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
A .U. S. based Engineering Manager was sent to England for a short-term six-month assignment
to recruit and build a team. He is almost dome with the assignmrnt and describes the entire
opportunity as being exciting and challenging. He wants to stay in Europe further and hopes to go
on future international assignments. According to Black and Mendenhall, which of the following
stages of the cross-cultural adjustment cycle is the manager in?
A. Culture shock
B. Mastery
C. Adjustment
D. HoneymoonAnswer: D
Explanation:

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION NO: 66
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main(){
int i, j;
for(i = 0, j = 1; j < 2, i < 4; i++, j++);
cout << i << ” ” << j;

return 0;
}
A. It prints: 4 5
B. It prints: 2 3
C. It prints: 3 2
D. It prints: 4 3
200-155 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 67
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <cstdarg>
using namespace std;
int mult(int f, int s, int t);
int main()
{
cout << mult(1,2,3);
return 0;
}
int mult(int f, int s, int t)
{

int mult_res;
mult_res = f*s*t;
return mult_res;
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 6
C. It prints: 2
D. It prints: 3
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 68
Which code, inserted at line 5, generates the output “ABC”?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
//insert code here
};
class B:public A {
public:
void Print(){ cout<< “B”; }
};
class C:public B {
public:
void Print(){ cout<< “C”; }
};
C++ Institute CPA Exam
int main()
{
A ob1;
B ob2;
C ob3;
A *obj;
obj = &ob1;
obj?>Print();
obj = &ob2;
obj?>Print();
obj = &ob3;
obj?>Print();
}
A. void Print(){ cout<<“A”;}
B. virtual void Print(){ cout<<“A”;}
C. virtual void Print(string s){ cout<<s;}
D. None of these
200-155 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 69
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class BaseClass

{
public:
int *ptr;
BaseClass(int i) { ptr = new int(i); }
~BaseClass() { delete ptr; delete ptr;}
void Print() { cout << *ptr; }
};
void fun(BaseClass x);
int main()
{
BaseClass o(10);
fun(o);
o.Print();
}
void fun(BaseClass x) {
cout << “Hello:”;
}
A. It prints: Hello:1
B. It prints: Hello:
C. It prints: 10
D. Runtime error.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 70
What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int getValue();
int main()
{
const int x = getValue();
cout<<x;
return 0;
}
int getValue()
{
return 5;
}
A. It will print 0
B. The code will not compile.
C. It will print 5
D. It will print garbage value
200-155 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
class A {
public:
A() { cout << “A0 “;}
A(string s) { cout << “A1”;}
};
class B : public A {
public:
B() { cout << “B0 “;}
B(string s) { cout << “B1 “;}
};
class C : private B {
public:
C() { cout << “C0 “;}
C(string s) { cout << “C1 “;}
};
int main () {

B b1;
C c1;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: A0 B0 A0 B1 A0 C0 A0 C1
B. It prints: B0 B1 C0 C1
C. It prints: A0 B0 A0 B0 C0
D. It prints: B0 B1
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 72
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
struct Person {
int age;
};
class First
{
Person *person;
public:

First() {person = new Person;
person?>age = 20;
}
void Print(){
cout << person?>age;
}
};
int main()
{
First t[2];
for (int i=0; i<2; i++)
t[i].Print();
}
A. It prints: 10
B. It prints: 2020
C. It prints: 22
D. It prints: 00
200-155 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 73
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <cstdlib>
#include <iostream>

using namespace std;
inline float sum(float a,float b)
{
return a+b;
}
int main()
{
float a,b;
a = 1.5; b = 3.4;
cout<<sum(a,b);
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0
B. It prints: 4.9
C. It prints: 5
D. It prints: 4
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 74
What is the output of the program?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>

using namespace std;
int main()
{
string s1=”Hello”;
string s2=”World”;
s1+=s2;
cout << s1;
return( 0 );
}
A. It prints: HelloWorld
B. It prints: Hello
C. It prints: World
D. It prints: HelWorld
200-155 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 75
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
#define DEF_A 0
#define DEF_B DEF_A+1
#define DEF_C DEF_B+1

int main(int argc, char *argv[]) {
cout << DEF_C;
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 2
B. It prints: 10
C. It prints: 0
D. It prints: 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 76
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
void set(struct person*);
struct person
{
int age;
};

int main()
{
struct person e = {18};
set(&e);
cout<< e.age;
return 0;
}
void set(struct person *p)
{
p?>age = p?>age + 1;
}
A. It prints: 18
B. It prints: 19
C. It prints: 20
D. It prints: 0
200-155 dumps 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 77
Point out an error in the program.
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
const int x=1;

int const *y=&x;
cout<<*y;
return 0;
}
A. No error
B. Error: unknown pointer conversion
C. cannot convert from ‘const int *’ to ‘int *const’
D. Compilation error
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 78
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int i=2;
switch(i)
{
case 1:
cout<<“Hello”;
case 2:
cout<<“world”;
case 3:

cout<<“End”;
} return 0;
}
A. It prints: Hello
B. It prints: world
C. It prints: worldEnd
D. It prints: End
200-155 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 79
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class complex{
double re;
double im;
public:
complex() : re(0),im(0) {}
complex(double x) { re=x,im=x;};
complex(double x,double y) { re=x,im=y;}
void print() { cout << re << ” ” << im;}
};
int main(){
complex c1;
double i=2;

c1 = i;
c1.print();
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 0 0
B. It prints: 1 1
C. It prints: 2 0
D. It prints: 2 2
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 80
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int f(int i, int b);
int main()
{
int i=0;
i++;
for (i=0; i<=2; i++)
{
cout<<f(0,i);

}
return 0;
}
int f(int a, int b)
{
return a+b;
}
A. It prints: 202020
B. It prints: 012
C. It prints: 0
D. It prints: 2
200-155 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 81
What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
class Test {
float i,j;
};

class Add {
public:
int x,y;
Add (int a=3, int b=3) { x=a; y=b; }
int result() { return x+y;}
};
int main () {
Test test;
Add * padd;
padd = &test;
cout << padd?>result();
return 0;
}
A. It prints: 6
B. It prints: 9
C. Compilation error
D. It prints: 33
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A00-211
Exam Name: SAS Base Programming for SAS 9
Q&As: 218

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QUESTION 1
The value 110700 is stored in a numeric variable named SALARY.
Which FORMAT statement displays the value as $110,700.00 in a report?
A. format salary comma11.2;
B. format salary dollar8.2;
C. format salary dollar11.2;
D. format salary comma8.2 dollar8.2;
A00-211 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.new;
length word $7;
amount = 4;
it amount = 4 then word = `FOUR’;
else if amount = 7
then word = `SEVEN’;
else word = `NONE!!!’;
amount = 7;
run;
What are the values of the AMOUNT and WORD variables in SAS dataset work.new?
A. amount word
4 FOUR
B. amount word
4 NONE!!!
C. amount word
7 FOUR
D. amount word
7 SEVEN
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
The following SAS program is submitted:
data test;
infile `file specification’;
input name $ [email protected]@;
run;
Which of the following is true?

A. Two @@ together are the same as one c.
B. Two @@ hold the data records until the bottom of the DATA step.
C. Two @@ hold the raw data record across iterations of the DATA step.
D. Two @@ are invalid syntax and will cause the program to fail to execute.
A00-211 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Given the SAS data set PEPM.STUDENTS:
PERM.STUDENTS NAME AGE
——— —— Alfred 14
Alice13
Barbara13
Carol14
The following SAS program is submitted:
libname perm `SAS data library’;
data students;
set perm.students;
file `file specification’;
put name $15. @5 age 2.;
run;
What is written to the output raw data file?
A. —-I—-10—I—-20—I—-30
Alfred 14
Alice 13
Barbara 13
Carol 14
B. —-I—-10—I—-20—I—-30
Alfr14
Alic13
Barb13a
Carol 4
C. —-I—-10—I—-20—I—-30
Alfr14ed
Alic130
Barb13ara
Caro141
D. —-I—-10—I—-20—I—-30
Alfred14
Alice13
Barbara13
Carol14
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which statement specifies that records 1 through 10 are to be read from the raw data file customer.txt?
A. infile ‘customer.txt’ 1-10;
B. input ‘customer.txt’ [email protected];
C. infile ‘customer.txt’ obs=10;
D. input ‘customer.txt’ stop=10;
A00-211 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which statement describes a characteristic of the SAS automatic variable _ERROR_?
A. The _ERROR_ variable maintains a count of the number of data errors in a DATA step.
B. The _ERROR_ variable is added to the program data vector and becomes part of the data set being
created.
C. The _ERROR_ variable can be used in expressions in the DATA step.
D. The _ERROR_ variable contains the number of the observation that caused the data error.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
The following SAS program is submitted:
A00-211 dumps

What types of variables are DayOfMonth, MonthOfYear, and Year?
A. DayOfMonth, Year, and MonthOfYear are character.
B. DayOfMonth, Year, and MonthOfYear are numeric.
C. DayOfMonth and Year are numeric. MonthOfYear is character.
D. DayOfMonth, Year, and MonthOfYear are date values.
A00-211 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
The following output is created by the FREQUENCY procedure:
A00-211 dumps

Which TABLES option(s) would be used to eliminate the row and column counts and just see the
frequencies and percents?
A. norowcount nocolcount
B. freq percent
C. norow nocol
D. nocounts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
The following SAS program is submitted:
data WORK.AUTHORS;
array Favorites{3} $ 8 (‘Shakespeare’,’Hemingway’,’McCaffrey’);
run;
What is the value of the second variable in the dataset WORK.AUTHORS?
A. Hemingway
B. Hemingwa
C. ‘ ‘ (a missing value)
D. The program contains errors. No variables are created.
A00-211 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
The data set WORK.REALESTATE has the variable LocalFee with a format of 9. and a variable
CountryFee with a format of 7.;
The following SAS program is submitted:

A00-211 dumps

What are the formats of the variables LOCALFEE and COUNTRYFEE in the output dataset?
A. LocalFee has format of 9. and CountryFee has a format of 7.
B. LocalFee has format of 9. and CountryFee has a format of percent7.2
C. Both LocalFee and CountryFee have a format of percent7.2
D. The data step fails execution; there is no format for LocalFee.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Consider the following data step:
A00-211 dumps

The computed variables City and State have their values assigned using two different methods, a
RETAIN statement and an Assignment statement. Which statement regarding this program is true?
A. The RETAIN statement is fine, but the value of City will be truncated to 8 bytes as the LENGTH
statement has been omitted.
B. Both the RETAIN and assignment statement are being used to initialize new variables and are equally
efficient. Method used is a matter of programmer preference.
C. The assignment statement is fine, but the value of City will be truncated to 8 bytes as the LENGTH
statement has been omitted.
D. City’s value will be assigned one time, State’s value 5 times.
A00-211 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.new;
length word $7;
amount = 7;
if amount = 5 then word = ‘CAT’;
else if amount = 7 then word = ‘DOG’;
else word = ‘NONE!!!’;
amount = 5;

run;
Which one of the following represents the values of the AMOUNT and WORD variables?
A. amount word
5 DOG
B. amount word
5 CAT
C. amount word
7 DOG
D. amount word
7 ‘ ‘ (missing character value)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.pieces;
do while (n lt 6);
n + 1;
end;
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable N in the output data set?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
A00-211 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
Title = ‘A Tale of Two Cities, Charles J. Dickens’;
Word = scan(title,3,’ ,’);
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable WORD in the output data set?
A. T
B. of
C. Dickens
D. ‘ ‘ (missing character value)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
First = ‘Ipswich, England’;
City_Country = substr(First,1,7)!!’, ‘!!’England’;
run;
Which one of the following is the length of the variable CITY_COUNTRY in the output data set?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 17
D. 25
A00-211 vce Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 34
What are the three layers of a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
A. access
B. core
C. distribution
D. user
E. server
F. Internet
210-260 exam 
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 35
What is the best way to confirm that AAA authentication is working properly?
A. Use the test aaa command.
B. Ping the NAS to confirm connectivity.
C. Use the Cisco-recommended configuration for AAA authentication.
D. Log into and out of the router, and then check the NAS authentication log.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning

C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
210-260 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
With which NTP server has the router synchronized?
A. 192.168.10.7
B. 108.61.73.243
C. 209.114.111.1
D. 132.163.4.103
E. 204.2.134.164
F. 241.199.164.101
Correct Answer: A
Question: 38
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro execute;
<insert statement here>
proc print data = sasuser.houses;
run;
%end;
%mend;
Which of the following completes the above program so that it executes on Tuesday?
A. %if &sysday = Tuesday %then %do;
B. %if &sysday = ‘Tuesday’ %then %do;
C. %if “&sysday” = Tuesday %then %do;
D. %if ‘&sysday’ = ‘Tuesday’ %then %do;
210-260 pdf 
Answer: A
Question: 39
Which one of the following statements is true regarding a SAS DATA step view?
A. It allows write capabilities.
B. It contains global statements.
C. It contains data and a descriptor portion.
D. It contains a partially compiled DATA step.
Answer: D
Question: 40
Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO

OBS COMMON X OBS COMMON Y
————————— —————————–
1 A 10 1 A 1
2 A 13 2 A 3
3 A 14 3 B 4
4 B 9 4 B 2
5 C 8 5 C 5
6 C 14
The following SAS DATA step is submitted:
data combine;
merge one two;
by common;
run;
Which one of the following represents the data values stored in data set COMBINE?
A. OBS COMMON X Y
——————————–
1 A 10 1
2 A 13 3
3 A 14 3
4 B 9 4
5 B 9 2
6 C 8 5
7 C 14 5
B. OBS COMMON X Y
———————————
1 A 10 1
2 A 13 3
3 B 9 4
4 C 8 5
C. OBS COMMON X Y
——————————-
1 A 10 1
2 A 13 3
3 B 14 4
4 B 9 2
5 C 8 5
D. OBS COMMON X Y
———————————-
1 A 10 1
2 A 13 1
3 A 14 1
4 A 10 3
5 A 13 3
6 A 14 3
7 B 9 4
8 B 9 2
9 C 8 5
10 C 14 5
210-260 vce 
Answer: A
Question: 41
Assume today is Tuesday, July 23, 2002. Which one of the following statements submitted at the
beginning of a SAS session assigns the value Tuesday, July 23, 2002 to the macro variable
START?
A. %let start = today(),weekdate.;
B. %let start = today(),format=weekdate.;
C. %let start = %sysfunc(today(),weekdate.);
D. %let start = %sysfunc(%today(),weekdate.);
Answer: C
Question: 42
The following SAS program is submitted:
%macro test(var);
%let jobs = BLACKSMITH WORDSMITH SWORDSMITH;
%let type = %index(&jobs,&var);
%mend;
%test(SMITH)
Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable TYPE?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. null
210-260 exam 
Answer: C
Question: 43
Which one of the following SAS integrity constraint types ensures that a specific set or range of
values are the only values in a variable?
A. CHECK
B. UNIQUE
C. FORMAT
D. DISTINCT
Answer: A
Question: 44
Which one of the following options displays the value of a macro variable in the SAS log?
A. MACRO
B. SOURCE
C. SOURCE2
D. SYMBOLGEN
210-260 dumps 
Answer: D
Question: 45
The following SAS ARRAY statement is submitted:
array score{*} a4 – a10, a25 ;
Which one of the following is the maximum number of elements stored?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8

D. 11
Answer: C
Question: 46
When is it appropriate to create indexes on a SAS data set for efficient processing?
A. if small subsets of data are often retrieved
B. if the key variable has very few unique values
C. if the data are often used for BY group processing
D. if the SAS data set file page count is less than three pages
210-260 pdf 
Answer: A
Question: 47
The following SAS program is submitted:
options yearcutoff = 1950;
%macro y2kopt(date);
%if &date >= 14610 %then %do;
options yearcutoff = 2000;
%end;
%else %do;
options yearcutoff = 1900;
%end;
%mend;
data _null_ ;
date = “01jan2000″d;
call symput(“date”,left(date));
run;
%y2kopt(&date)
The SAS date for January 1, 2000 is 14610 and the SAS system option for YEARCUTOFF is set
to 1920 prior to submitting the above program. Which one of the following is the value of
YEARCUTOFF when the macro finishes execution?
A. 1900
B. 1920
C. 1950
D. 2000
Answer: D
Question: 48
Which one of the following is the purpose of the REUSE= YES option in a compressed SAS data
set?
A. It temporarily compresses observations in a SAS data set.
B. It allows users to update the same SAS data set concurrently.
C. It allows new observations to be inserted wherever enough free space exists.
D. It specifies that a new empty data set with a given name replaces an existing data set with
the same name.
210-260 vce 
Answer: C
Question: 49
Given the following SAS data set ONE:
ONE
LEVEL AGE
——————–
1 10
2 20
3 20
2 10
1 10
2 30
3 10
2 20
3 30
1 10
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql;
select level, max(age) as MAX
from one group by level
having max(age) > (select avg(age) from one);
quit;
Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. LEVEL AGE
—————–
2 20
3 20
B. LEVEL AGE
——————-
2 30
3 30
C. LEVEL MAX
——————
2 20
3 30
D. LEVEL MAX
———————
2 30
3 30
Answer: D
Question: 50
Which one of the following is true regarding the KEEP statement?
A. The KEEP statement is available in both the DATA and the PROC steps.
B. The KEEP statement selects the variables read from the input data set(s).
C. The KEEP statement applies to all data sets created within the same DATA step.
D. The KEEP statement applies only to the first data set created within the same DATA step if
more than one data set is created.
210-260 exam 
Answer: C

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