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Question No : 1
A new Contract template has been assigned an incorrect Allocation Type.
You need to ensure that the correct Allocation Type is assigned to the template.
Which action will achieve the goal?
A. Unpublish the template and then make the required changes.
B. Use the Copy Template menu item to create a new Contract template. Edit the new template to use the correct Allocation Type. Delete the original template.
C. Deactivate the Contract template and then create a new Contract template that uses the correct Allocation Type.
D. Create a new Contract template that uses the correct Allocation Type.
Answer: D

Question No : 2
Which two statements about queues are true?(Choose TWO) MB2-717 pdf
A. Queues allow users to remove themselves from responsibility for an item by using the Remove button.
B. Queues allow users to process items that they do not own.
C. You can delete a queue item without deleting the record for which the queue item was created.
D. Queues allow users to see multiple record types that require action in one list.
Answer: B,C
MB2-717 dumps
Question No : 3     MB2-717 dumps
User1 is the owner of the Specialists team. User2 adds a case that she owns to the Specialists team’s queue. Who now owns the case?
A. The Specialists team
B. The owner of the Specialist team’s queue
C. User1
D. User2
Answer: D

Question No : 4
You create a sales order by using the latest currency exchange rate.
Which three changes to a sales order will force a recalculation of the sales order money?(Choose Three)
A. The record is created.
B. The state of the record is changed.
C. A money field is updated.
D. The shipping address is changed.
E. The order name is changed.
Answer: B,C,D

Question No : 5
What are three valid ways to create cases? (Choose Three)
A. Convert a Custom Activity record to a case.
B. Import cases by using a .csv file.
C. Use the Quick Create form.
D. Convert an Opportunity record to a case.
E. Convert a lead to a case.
Answer: A,B,C

Question No : 6
You have a Microsoft Dynamics CRM instance that has sample data installed. MB2-717 dumps
Which three items are default areas of the subject tree? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.(Choose Three)
A. default subject
B. service
C. case
D. issue
E. query
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 7
You are modifying a customer service Case record by using the full form. Which activity type can you add to the service Case record from within the form?
A. Letter
B. Service activity
C. Custom activity type
D. Phone call
Answer: D

Question No : 8
You are creating a discount list. MB2-717 pdf
Which two types of discounts can you create?(Choose TWO)
A. Unit
B. Base
C. Formula
D. Amount
E. Percentage
Answer: D,E

Question No : 9
You are creating a case in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Which two entity types are valid for the Customer field?(Choose TWO)
A. Products
B. Leads
C. Contacts
D. Accounts
Answer: C,D

Question No : 10
You are creating a case from an email message by using the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Outlook client.You need to complete the task by using the least number of steps. MB2-717 dumps
What should you do?
A. Create a new case from the Outlook email message by using the Track and Convert To Case features.
Set the Customer field of the case to the account of the person who sent the email message.
B. Track the email message from Outlook in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
Create a case in Microsoft Dynamics CRM and set the Customer field of the case to the account of the person who sent the email message.
Change the Set Regarding field on the email message to the case.
C. Track the email message from Outlook in Microsoft Dynamics CRM by using the Track feature.
Use the View in CRM feature to open the Microsoft Dynamics CRM email record.
Convert the Microsoft Dynamics CRM email message to a case after the Microsoft Dynamics CRM email record opens.
D. Create a new case from the Outlook email message by using the Set Regarding feature.
Set the Customer field of the case to the account of the person who sent the email message.
Answer: A

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[2017 New Version] Free Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps PDF Training Materials And Youtube Online Demo

High quality actual Cisco 200-155 dumps exam questions and answers, practice tests with PDF and VCE format for Cisco 200-155 certification, http://www.lead4pass.com/200-155.html 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 200-155 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C
200-155
QUESTION 3             200-155
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber? 200-155
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.10?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

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[2017 New Version] Latest Microsoft 70-411 Exam Questions And Youtube Online Free Demo

Question No : 1
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso. com. The forest contains a Network Policy Server (NPS) server named NPS1 and a VPN server named VPN1. 70-411 exam
VPN1 forwards all authentication requests to NPS1.
A partner company has an Active Directory forest named adatum. com. The adatum. com forest contains an NPS server named NPS2.
You plan to grant users from adatum. com VPN access to your network.
You need to authenticate the users from adatum. com on VPN1.
What should you create on each NPS server?
To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct NPS servers. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-411 exam
Answer:
70-411 exam
Question No : 2 70-411 exam
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso. com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 has the following role services installed:
DirectAccess and VPN (RRAS)
Network Policy Server
Remote users have client computers that run either Windows XP, Windows 7, or Windows 8.
You need to ensure that only the client computers that run Windows 7 or Windows 8 can establish VPN connections to Server1.
What should you configure on Server1?
A. A condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
B. A constraint of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
C. a condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
D. A vendor-specific RADIUS attribute of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection
request policy
Answer: A

Explanation:
If you want to configure the Operating System condition, click Operating System, and then click Add. In Operating System Properties, click Add, and then specify the operating system settings that are required to match the policy.
The Operating System condition specifies the operating system (operating system version or service pack number), role (client or server), and architecture (x86, x64, or ia64) required for the computer configuration to match the policy.

Question No : 3
You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso. com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed. 70-411 exam
You enable Network Access Protection (NAP) on all of the DHCP scopes on Server1.
You need to create a DHCP policy that will apply to all of the NAP non-compliant DHCP clients.
Which criteria should you specify when you create the DHCP policy?
A. The client identifier
B. The user class
C. The vendor class
D. The relay agent information
Answer: B

Explanation:
To configure a NAP-enabled DHCP server
On the DHCP server, click Start, click Run, in Open, type dhcpmgmt. smc, and then press ENTER.
In the DHCP console, open \IPv4.
Right-click the name of the DHCP scope that you will use for NAP client computers, and then click Properties.
On the Network Access Protection tab, under Network Access Protection Settings, choose Enable for this scope, verify that Use default Network Access Protection profile is selected, and then click OK.
In the DHCP console tree, under the DHCP scope that you have selected, rightclick Scope Options, and then click Configure Options.
On the Advanced tab, verify that Default User Class is selected next to User class.
Select the 003 Router check box, and 70-411 exam in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for the default gateway used by compliant NAP client computers, and then click Add.
Select the 006 DNS Servers check box, and in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for each router to be used by compliant NAP client computers, and then click Add.
Select the 015 DNS Domain Name check box, and in String value, under Data entry, type your organization’s domain name (for example, woodgrovebank. local), and then click Apply. This domain is a full-access network assigned to compliant NAP clients.
On the Advanced tab, next to User class, choose Default Network Access Protection Class.
Select the 003 Router check box, and in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for the default gateway used by noncompliant NAP client computers, and then click Add. This can be the same default gateway that is used by compliant NAP clients.
Select the 006 DNS Servers check box, and in IP Address, under Data entry, type the IP address for each DNS server to be used by noncompliant NAP client computers, and then click Add. These can be the same DNS servers used by compliant NAP clients.
Select the 015 DNS Domain Name check box, and in String value, under Data entry, type a name to identify the restricted domain (for example, restricted. Woodgrovebank. local), and then click OK. This domain is a restricted-access network assigned to noncompliant NAP clients. Click OK to close the Scope Options dialog box. Close the DHCP console.

Question No : 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso. com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Network Policy Server role service installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Clear checkmark for Select an existing template in the new client wizard.
In New RADIUS Client, in Shared secret, do one of the following:
Bullet Ensure that Manual is selected, and then in Shared secret, type the 70-411 exam strong password that is also entered on the RADIUS client. Retype the shared secret in Confirm shared secret.

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Success Secret to Pass 2017 Free Cisco 400-351 Dumps | 400-351 Exam | 400-351 Questions

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE Wireless
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless
Exam Code: 400-351
Total Questions: 161 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 19, 2017
Exam Information: http://www.lead4pass.com/400-351.html
Exam Description:

The 400-351 dumps Cisco CCIE Wireless Written Exam is a 2-hour test that will validate that a wireless engineer has the expertise to plan, design, implement, operate, and troubleshoot complex enterprise WLAN networks.

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♥Lead4pass Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Q&As ♥

QUESTION 22
When performing a backup of the BlackBerry device using the backup and restore tool in BlackBerry Desktop Manager, what is the file extension of the backup file that is created? (Choose one.)
A. .bak
B. .sav
C. .ipd
D. .fil
E. .tmp

Correct Answer: C

 
QUESTION 23
A user BlackBerry device powered down spontaneously, and is now displaying the following error:
Error Code 507
Which two of the following steps should a system administrator use to troubleshoot this error? (Choose
two)

A. Connect the BlackBerry device to BlackBerry Desktop Manager and perform a fresh synchronization
B. Perform a hard reset fo the BlackBerry device and see if the error code persists C. Obtain a replacement SIM card and see if the BlackBerry device will start up
D. Connect the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and run the application loader tool to reload the BlackBerry Device Software
E. Attempt a Bluetooth connection to the BlackBerry Desktop Manager and then synchronize the way

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 24
A BlackBerry device user synchronizes the Calendar application wirelessly on the BlacBerry Enterprise Server and then synchronizes the Calendar application using a wired connection with BlackBerry Desktop Manager for a public work calendar. Recently, the user has begun to see numerous duplicate entries in the Calendar application on the BlackBerry device. Which of the following troubleshooting steps might resolve the issue? (Choose one.)
A. Have the user perfomr a clean uninstall of theBlackBerry Desktop Manager and replace it with the previous version
B. Have the user delete the calendar database on the BlackBerry device using BlackBerry Desktop Manager and perform a one-way synchronization from the computer
C. Have the user delete the Calendar database ont he comput er and perfomr a one-way synchronizationfrom the BlackBerry device
D. Delete and the undelete the Desktop [CICAL] service book on the BlackBerry device
E. Have the user update the BlackBerry Device Software on the BlackBerry device

Correct Answer: B

 

 

400-351 dumps  QUESTION 25
A BlackBerry device user filtered message count in the BlackBerry Administration Service is increasing and not email messages are being forwarded to the BlackBerry device. Which of the following may be the cause of this? (Choose one)
A. The user doesn not have sufficient wireless coverage
B. The BlackBerry device setting for if no filters apply, send email to hadnheld is se to No, The BlackBerry device settings for if no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No.
C. The user has not been provisioned for Enterprise services
D. The user mail client rules/policies are interfering with message delivery The user mail client rules/ policies are interfering with message delivery
E. The service books on the BlackBerry device are corrupt

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 26
A BlackBerry device user sends an email message using the BlackBerry device but receives the following
error:
Desktop email program was unable to submit message
At which point in the data flow process is the email message failing to be sent?(Choose one.)

A. When the BlackBerry Enterprise Server submits the email message to the messaging server
B. When the BlackBerry device submits the email message to the wireless network
C. When the BlackBerry Enterprise Server receives the email message from the BlackBerry Infastructure
D. When the BlackBerry Infastructure receives the email message from the wireless network
E. When the intended recipient messaging server receives the email message

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 27
After the initial insatllation of BlackBerry Desktop Manager, what is the first setting that has to be configured to ensure the detection of the BlackBerry device? (Choose one)
A. BlackBerry Device Software must be installed on the computer
B. Ensure Email Settings have been verified and are correct
C. Ensure option item Profile Options is set to use the correct MAPI profile
D. Ensure option item Connection Options is set to use a USB port
E. Ensure option item Data Folder Options is set to use the recommended default value

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 28
Which of the following components must be selected during a custom insatll of BlackBerry Desktop Software of S/MIME and Wi-Fi support? (Choose one)
A. S/MIME Support Package
B. BlackBerry device software
C. BlackBerr Security support package
D. Certificate Synchronization
E. BlackBerry advanced networking support

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 29
Which of the following indicates the best signal on a BlackBerry device Located under Options>Status>Signal? (Choose one)
A. -85mhz
B. -200dbm
C. EDGE
D. +104
E. -85dbm

Correct Answer: E

 

 

QUESTION 30
A BlackBerry device user calls in, asking for the best resources to self-educate on why the Send As permissions gets revoked. Which two of the following options are the best resources? (Choose two)
A. BlackBerry Permissions Library
B. http://www.blackberry.com/sendas
C. Blackberry User Administration Guide
D. Search the BTSC for Send As Revoked or specific errors encountered
E. IT Policy reference Guide

Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 31
When inquiring about a fairly recent version of the BlackBerry Enterprise Server, how can a support representative most effectively limit the results of a search in the BTSC? (Choose two)
A. Search Top Results since any search yielding so many results must be a top issue
B. Try an Advanced Search and limit the published dates
C. Try an Advanced Search and reduce the number of results returned
D. Use more specific search terms, including full versions numbers
E. Use mor egeneral terms and avoid specific versions
Correct Answer: BD

 

 

QUESTION 32
In a low memory situation, which of the following will Low Memory Manager do to make more memory available on the BlackBerry device? (Choose one)
A. Copy all media from the BlacBerry device memory to a microSD card
B. Close all currently running applications
C. Delete the least used third party applications
D. Advise that there is not enough memory to perform any operations
E. Other applications will remove low priority data

Correct Answer: E

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2017 Latest Microsoft 070-685 VCE Exam Questions – 100% Pass Guarantee

QUESTION 1
The company purchases 500 USB flash drives from a new hardware vendor and distributes them to the users.
The help desk reports that the users are unable to access the new USB flash drives. Microsoft 070-685 vce Questions and Answers
You need to ensure that users can save data on the USB flash drives.
What should you do?
A. Instruct the help desk to modify the BitLocker settings.
B. Instruct the help desk to modify the Windows Defender settings.
C. Request that an administrator modify the driver signing policy.
D. Request that an administrator modify the device installation restriction policy.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Open Group Policy Management and edit the applicable GPO in your Active Directory.
Disable autorun:
Computer Configuration \ Administrative Templates \ Windows Components \ AutoPlay Policies Turn off Autoplay: Enabled
070-685
Limit to approved devices:
Computer Configuration \ Administrative Templates \ System > Device Installation \ Device Installation Restrictions Allow installation of devices that match any of these device IDs: (add the corporate device)
Prevent installation of devices not described by other policy settings: Enabled
070-685
QUESTION 2                                               070-685 vce
The company is deploying a new application.
When users attempt to install the application, they receive an error message indicating that they need administrative privileges to install it.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can install the application. The solution must adhere to the corporate security guidelines. What should you recommend?
A. Publish the application by using a Group Policy.
B. Disable User Account Control (UAC) by using a Group Policy.
C. Add all domain users to the local Power Users group by using Restricted Groups.
D. Add the current users to the local Administrators group by using Group Policy preferences.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Several mobile users access the Internet by using cellular connections.
The help desk reports a high volume of calls from mobile users who report the following connection problems:
When their cellular connections fail, their VPN connections also fail. When their cellular connections are reestablished, they must manually connect to the VPN server.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the VPN connections are automatically reestablished.
What should you recommend?
A. Implement an IKEv2 VPN.
B. Implement an SSTP-based VPN.
C. Configure credential roaming.
D. Configure a Kerberos user ticket lifetime.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Internet Key Exchange version 2 (IKEv2) support was added in Windows Server2008R2 and Windows7 to accommodate a new VPN type that supports VPN Reconnect. VPN Reconnect refers to the ability of a VPN connection to survive short interruptions in network connectivity, such as when you move from one wireless access point to another, or when you switch from a wired to a wireless network adapter. By taking advantage of features in IKEv2, even changes in IP address at the client do not drop the VPN connection or require any user actions. As soon as connectivity to the RRAS VPN server is restored, then the VPN tunnel is automatically reestablished.

QUESTION 4
Users in the research department report that they cannot run App1 or Windows XP Mode. You need to ensure that all research department users can run App1.  070-685 vce
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Approve all Windows 7 updates on WSUS1.
B. Enable hardware virtualization on the research department computers.
C. Give each member of the research department a computer that has an Intel Core i5 processor.
D. Request that a domain administrator create a GPO that configures the Windows Remote Management (WinRM) settings.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Using WindowsXP Mode, you can run programs that were designed for WindowsXP on computers running: Windows7 Professional, Enterprise, or Ultimate editions.
Requirements:
Download and install Windows Virtual PC.
Download and install Wind0ws XP Mode.
CPU with Intel-VT or AMD-V technology enabled in the BIOS – hardware virtualization.

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How To Pass 070-463 Exam With Latest Microsoft 070-463 Dumps Exam Materials

Question No : 1
You develop and deploy a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package is stored in the file system.   Microsoft 070-463 dumps
You need to execute the package without importing it to the SSIS server.
What should you use to execute the package? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. catalog.start_package
B. dtexec
C. SQL Server Management Studio
D. SQL Server Agent
Answer: B,D

Question No : 2
You use SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) for extract, transformation, load (ETL) processing.
Issues concerning addresses are discovered in the data warehouse that you manage.
Validation must separate the addresses into three categories:
Valid addresses
Autocorrected addresses
Invalid addresses
You need to enhance the SSIS packages to perform address validation by using an external service.
Which transformation should you use? (To answer, drag the appropriate transformation from the list of options to the correct location or locations in the answer area.)
070-463
Answer:
070-463

Question No : 2
You are developing a data flow transformation to merge two data sources. One source contains product data and the other source contains data about the country in which the 070-463 dumps product was manufactured. Both data sources contain a two-character CountryCode column and both use SQL Server. Both data sources contain an ORDER BY clause to sort the data by the CountryCode column in ascending order.
You use a Merge Join transformation to join the data.
070-463
You need to ensure that the Merge Join transformation works correctly without additional transformations.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Change the ORDER BY clause on the product source to order by ProductName.
B. Change the Merge Join transformation to a Merge transformation.
C. Set the appropriate SortKeyPosition properties on the data sources.
D. Set the IsSorted property on both data sources.
Answer: C,D

Question No : 3
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to retrieve product data from two different sources. One source is hosted in a SQL Azure database. Each source contains products for different distributors.
Products for each distributor source must be combined for insertion into a single product table destination.
You need to select the appropriate data flow transformation to meet this requirement.
Which transformation types should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Multicast
B. Merge Join
C. Term Extraction
D. union All
E. Merge
Answer: D,E

Question No : 4
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
You need to design a package to change a variable value during package execution by using the least amount of development effort.
What should you use?
A. Expression task
B. Script task
C. Execute SQL task
D. Execute Process task
E. Term Extraction transformation
Answer: A

Question No : 5
You are using SQL Server Data Tools to develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project.
The first package that you create in this project contains a package connection that accesses a flat file. Additional packages in the project must also access this file.  070-463 dumps
You need to define and reuse the flat file connection in all project packages.
What should you do?
A. Convert the package Connection Manager in the first package to a project Connection Manager.
B. Copy the package Connection Manager and paste it into the second package.
C. Convert the project to the Package Deployment model.
D. Set the ProtectionLevel property of the package Connection Manager to DontSaveSensitive to reuse the flat file connection.
Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a server deployment strategy for the main office that meets the server deployment requirements.
What should you recommend installing in the main office?
A. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
B. The Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK)
C. The Express Deployment Tool (EDT)
D. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
WDS is a server role that enables you to remotely deploy Windows operating systems. You can use it to set up new computers by using a network-based installation. This means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD, USB drive, or DVD.
70-413
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the 70-413 pdf Active Directory site topology to support on the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A new site
B. A new site link bridge
C. A new site link
D. A new subnet
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Scenario:
The forest contains a child domain for each office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
* Sites overview
Sites in AD DS represent the physical structure, or topology, of your network. AD DS uses network topology information, which is stored in the directory as site, subnet, and site link objects, to build the most efficient replication topology. The replication topology itself consists of the set of connection objects that enable inbound replication from a source domain controller to the destination domain controller that stores the connection object. The Knowledge Consistency Checker (KCC) creates these connection objects automatically on each domain controller.

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory environment to support the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
C. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
From case study:
* Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the 70-413 vce branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a change to the Active Directory environment to support the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
C. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
D. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
* Scenario:
The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend an IPAM management solution for the Operators groups. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains. Add the computers used by the members of the Operators group to the IPAM server.
B. Modify the membership of the IPAM Administrators group and the WinRMRemoteWMIUsers_ group on the IPAM server.
C. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet and modify the membership of the WinRMRemoteWMRJsers_ group on the IPAM server.
D. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet on the IPAM server. Run the Invoke- IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Scenario: Ensure that the 70-413 dumps members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.

QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

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B. Enable EIGRP on the FastEthernet0/0 and FastEthernet0/1 interface using the no passive-interface command.
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QUESTION 28
In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list managed segments.
On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.
Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?
A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way *
of managing space within a segment. It completely eliminates any need to specify and tune the pctused,freelists, and freelist groups storage parameters for
schema objects created in the tablespace. If any of these attributes are specified, they are ignored.
Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a *
replacement for traditional freelists management which used one-way linked-lists to manage free blocks with tables and indexes. ASSM is commonly called
“bitmap freelists” because that is how Oracle implement the internal data structures for free block management.

Note:

*
Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data buffer pool (db_cache_size, etc.).

*
The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention tuning, adding freelists (or ASSM), and adding missing indexes.
QUESTION 29
Examine this command:
SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (`SH’, `CUSTOMERS’, `PUBLISH’, `false’); Which three statements are true about the effect of this command?
A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.

Correct Answer: CDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure

This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.

*
Example: Using Pending Statistics
Assume many modifications have been made to the employees table since the last time statistics were gathered. To ensure that the cost-based optimizer is still picking the best plan, statistics should be gathered once again; however, the user is concerned that new statistics will cause the optimizer to choose bad plans when the current ones are acceptable. The user can do the following:
EXEC DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘hr’, ’employees’, ‘PUBLISH’, ‘false’);
By setting the employees tables publish preference to FALSE, any statistics gather from now on will not be automatically published. The newly gathered statistics will be marked as pending.
QUESTION 30
Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle database (source):

Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command?
A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user on the source database with the DATAPUMP_EXD_FULL_DATABASE role.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same platform with the same endianness.
E. The path of data files on the target database must be the same as that on the source database.
F. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
1.Ensure that the exporting user at the source database has the DAT- APUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role. This user must be specified when you create the data- base link.
2.
Ensure that the importing user at the destination database has the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role.

3.
Create and test a database link between the source and destination databases.

4.
Run the following command, where import_user is the username for the importing user, and db_link is the name of the data base link owned by the exporting user: IMPDP import_user NETWORK_LINK=db_link FULL=Y;
QUESTION 31
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database?
A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The benefits of Oracle Multitenant are brought by implementing a pure deployment choice. The following list calls out the most compelling examples.
*
High consolidation density. (E)
The many pluggable databases in a single multitenant container database share its memory and background processes, letting you operate many more pluggable
databases on a particular platform than you can single databases that use the old architecture. This is the same benefit that schema-based consolidation brings.
*
Rapid provisioning and cloning using SQL.
*
New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades. (D, not B)
The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its many pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable
database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant container database at a different Oracle Database software version.
*
(C, not A) Manage many databases as one.
By consolidating existing databases as pluggable databases, administrators can manage many databases as one. For example, tasks like backup and disaster
recovery are performed at the multitenant container database level.
*
Dynamic between pluggable database resource management. In Oracle Database 12c, Resource Manager is extended with specific functionality to control the
competition for resources between the pluggable databases within a multitenant container database.
Note:
*
Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers reduce IT costs by simplifying consolidation, provisioning,
upgrades, and more. It is supported by a new architecture that allows a multitenant container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully
complements other options, including Oracle Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing database can be simply adopted, with no
change, as a pluggable database; and no changes are needed in the other tiers of the application.

Reference: 12c Oracle Multitenant
QUESTION 32
Examine the current value for the following parameters in your database instance:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 700M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M LOG_BUFFER = 200M
You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;
Which statement is true?
A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.
D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_MAX_SIZE.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
The SGA_TARGET parameter can be dynamically increased up to the value specified for the parameter, and it can also be reduced.
SGA_MAX_SIZE
*
Example:
For example, suppose you have an environment with the following configuration:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M SGA_TARGET = 512M DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M In this example, the value of SGA_TARGET can be resized up to 1024M and can also be reduced until one or more of the automatically sized components reaches its minimum size. The exact value depends on environmental factors such as the number of CPUs on the system. However, the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE remains fixed at all times at 128M

*
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE Size of cache for 8K buffers

*
For example, consider this configuration:
SGA_TARGET = 512M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, increasing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16 M to 144M means that the 16M is taken away from the automatically sized components. Likewise,
reducing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16M to 112M means that the 16M is given to the automatically sized components.

QUESTION 33
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.
B. The PDB must be dosed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B, not A: The PDB must be closed before unplugging it.
D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference.
E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB’s datafiles can remain in place.
Reference: Oracle White Paper, Oracle Multitenant
QUESTION 34
Examine the following command:

CREATE TABLE (prod_id number(4),
Prod_name varchar2 (20),
Category_id number(30),
Quantity_on_hand number (3) INVISIBLE);

Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?

A. The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible column in the output.
B. The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.
C. Referential integrity constraint cannot be set on the invisible column.
D. The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.
E. A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
AB: You can make individual table columns invisible. Any generic access of a table does not show the invisible columns in the table. For example, the following operations do not display invisible columns in the output:
*
SELECT * FROM statements in SQL

*
DESCRIBE commands in SQL*Plus

*
%ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL

*
Describes in Oracle Call Interface (OCI)
Incorrect:
Not D: You can make invisible columns visible.
You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and you can later alter the table to make the same column visible.

Reference: Understand Invisible Columns

QUESTION 35
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.
You issue the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS; SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM; SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;
For which database users is the audit policy now active?
A. All users except SYS
B. All users except SCOTT
C. All users except sys and SCOTT
D. All users except sys, system, and SCOTT Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
If you run multiple AUDIT statements on the same unified audit policy but specify different EXCEPT users, then Oracle Database uses the last exception user list, not any of the users from the preceding lists. This means the effect of the earlier AUDIT POLICY … EXCEPT statements are overridden by the latest AUDIT POLICY … EXCEPT statement.
Note:
*
The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default, this policy is not enabled.

*
You can use the keyword ALL to audit all actions. The following example shows how to audit all actions on the HR.EMPLOYEES table, except actions by user pmulligan.
Example Auditing All Actions on a Table CREATE AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol ACTIONS ALL ON HR.EMPLOYEES;
AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol EXCEPT pmulligan;
Reference: Oracle Database Security Guide 12c, About Enabling Unified Audit Policies

QUESTION 36
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema by issuing the following command:
$> sqlldr [email protected] table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command?

A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that establish session characteristics.
QUESTION 37
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:

After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value You can alter the default displayed values for full Data Redaction polices. By default, 0 is the redacted value when Oracle Database performs full redaction (DBMS_REDACT.FULL) on a column of the NUMBER data type. If you want to change it to another value (for example, 7), then you can run the DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure to modify this value. The modification applies to all of the Data Redaction policies in the current database instance. After you modify a value, you must restart the database for it to take effect.
Note:
*
The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or an application.

*
UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES Procedure
This procedure modifies the default displayed values for a Data Redaction policy for full redaction.
*
After you create the Data Redaction policy, it is automatically enabled and ready to redact data.
*
Oracle Data Redaction enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or applications. You can redact column data by using one of the following methods:
/ Full redaction. / Partial redaction. / Regular expressions. / Random redaction. / No redaction.
Reference: Oracle Database Advanced Security Guide 12c, About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value
QUESTION 38
You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the sales schema for at least three years.
Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.
Which two must you do to track the transactions?

A. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking. Correct Answer: DE

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
E: By default, flashback archiving is disabled for any table. You can enable flashback archiving for a table if you have the FLASHBACK ARCHIVE object privilege on the Flashback Data Archive that you want to use for that table.
D: Creating a Flashback Data Archive / Create a Flashback Data Archive with the CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE statement, specifying the following: Name of the Flashback Data Archive Name of the first tablespace of the Flashback Data Archive (Optional) Maximum amount of space that the Flashback Data Archive can use in the first tablespace / Create a Flashback Data Archive named fla2 that uses tablespace tbs2, whose data will be retained for two years: CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla2 TABLESPACE tbs2 RETENTION 2 YEAR;
QUESTION 39
Your are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data
types, and the table’s indexes, to another tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the application?

A. Oracle Data Pump.
B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the indexes.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition. Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
*
Oracle Database provides a mechanism to make table structure modifications without significantly affecting the availability of the table. The mechanism is called online table redefinition. Redefining tables online provides a substantial increase in availability compared to traditional methods of redefining tables.

*
To redefine a table online:
Choose the redefinition method: by key or by rowid
*
By key–Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo- primary keys are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints. For this method, the versions of the tables before and after redefinition should have the same primary key columns. This is the preferred and default method of redefinition.

*
By rowid–Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named M_ROW$$ is added to the post-redefined version of the table. It is recommended that this column be dropped or marked as unused after the redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to 10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of redefinition automatically sets this column unused. You can then use the ALTER TABLE … DROP UNUSED COLUMNS statement to drop it.

You cannot use this method on index-organized tables. Note:

*
When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in this manner enables you to change storage characteristics or move to a new tablespace. Rebuilding an index based on an existing data source removes intra-block fragmentation. Compared to dropping the index and using the CREATE INDEX statement, re-creating an existing index offers better performance.
Incorrect:
Not E: Edition-based redefinition enables you to upgrade the database component of an application while it is in use, thereby minimizing or eliminating down time.

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