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QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about the object model?
A. dmr_content is not a sub-type of dm_sysobject although sysobject contents are stored asdmr_content objects.
B. dm_acl objects are stored in the System cabinet.
C. Not all sysobjects can have associated permissions.
D. Virtual documents are objects of type dm_relation that describe a parent/child relationshipbetween objects.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
How do you manually configure the DFC global registry?
A. 1. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
B. 1. encrypt the password2. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
C. 1. activate the registry user2. change the password3. encrypt the password4. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
D. 1. create a new user as a consumer2. designate the user as a registry user3. encrypt the password4. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You have a working registered table called “CompanyList” with one string column called “CompanyName” with one row value “EMC.” What is the output of the following statements?
A. null
B. EMC
C. CompanyName
D. A DfException is thrown.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true?
A. You use the IDfClient.getQuery method to obtain an IDfQuery object.
B. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfCollection.
C. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfEnumeration.
D. The execute method of an IDfQuery object only requires the repository name as aparameter.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which code should you use to create a copy of the current object and place it in CopyCab?
A. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);sysObj.link(“/CopyCab”);sysObj.savelock();
B. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);sysObj.unlink(“/SourceCab”);sysObj.link(“/CopyCab”);sysObj .saveAsNew( false );
C. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject(myId);sysObj.link(“/CopyCab”);sysObj.save();
D. IDfSysObject sysObj =
(IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);sysObj.unlink(“/SourceCab”);sysObj.link(“/CopyCab”);sysObj .save();

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
When are the binding rules for a virtual document actually applied?
A. When the virtual document is saved
B. When IDfSysObject.asVirtualDocument() is called
C. When IDfVirtualDocumentNode.getChildCount() is called
D. When IDfVirtualDocument.getRootNode() is called

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which statement is true?
A. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from the current session.
B. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the current user.
C. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the super user.
D. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from a new session.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Which DFC interface provides a getCheckoutDirectory() method that returns the local checkout directory?
A. IDfClient
B. IDfClientX
C. IDfSession
D. IDfClientRegistry

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about Trusted Content Services (TCS)?
A. TCS is not required to create ApplicationPermission entries.
B. TCS is not required to evaluate ApplicationPermission entries.
C. TCS is not required to delete ApplicationPermission entries.
D. TCS validates and enforces application permissions at the server level.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Where are the credentials located for the BOF’s client dynamic delivery mechanism?
A. dfc.properties
B. dmcl.ini
C. bof.properties
D. dbor.properties

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which SBO method signature is valid for conversion to a web service?
A. void setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
B. boolean uploadConfiguration(java.io.File myFile)
C. boolean setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
D. int countDocuments(IDfSession sess, String qualification)

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
What happens when you fail to close open query collections in a DFC application?
A. Performance for other users will be impaired.
B. Eventually, no more queries can be executed.
C. Garbage collection will release appropriate resources.
D. The session will disconnect.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What kind of module is used to create a Documentum Web Service?
A. Type-based Business Object
B. Service-based Business Object
C. Web-based Business Object
D. Custom Module

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
How do you dynamically add host2 as additional Connection Broker, such that Docbase A and Docbase B
are listed as available repositories?

A. change “host = host1” to “host = host1, host2” in dmcl.ini
B. execute IDfDocbrokerClient.addDocbroker(“host2”,1489);
C. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini:[DOCBROKER_BACKUP_1] host=host2 port=1489
D. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini:[DOCBROKER_SECONDARY] host=host2 port=1489

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Given the following architecture: To disable full-text search for end users of Webtop, on which computer should you update the dfc.properties file?
A. server1 only
B. app1 only
C. both server1 and local1
D. both app1 and local1

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
A TBO has been created for the custom object type called my_loan_application. If the following statement is executed in a Webtop custom component, where is the TBO executed?
IDfSysObject loanApp = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject(“my_loan_application”);
A. The TBO executes on the client browser’s JVM.
B. The TBO executes on the Global Registry computer.
C. The TBO executes on the application server JVM.
D. The TBO execuctes on the Content Server JVM.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
How should you deploy a TBO to the respository?
A. Using IDfClient.newModule() only
B. Using Documentum Application Installer only
C. Using both Documentum Application Installer and IDfClient.newModule()
D. Using Documentum Application Installer, IDfClient.newModule() andIDfClient.newService()

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
What are the minimum required components to extend custom object type behavior?
A. TBO and SBO
B. TBO and DFC
C. SBO and DFC
D. SBO and Web Services Framework

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
A TBO has been created for a custom object type called my_loan_application. The TBO relies on a dependant SBO to calculate credit scores. The TBO is only invoked by the Webtop application. Where does the SBO execute?
A. Global registry machine
B. Content Server JVM
C. Application Server JVM
D. the client browser’s JVM

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
Given an SBO called com.mycompany.ICreditScore and the following statement: newModule(repositoryName, “com.mycompany.ICreditScore”, sessionMgr) What does the statement do?
A. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
B. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore service
C. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
D. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore service

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
Which statement is true about Documentum Web Services Framework (WSF)?
A. All business objects can be exposed as Services using WSF.
B. Currently WSF does not support secured SOAP transfer.
C. WSF does not require UDDI to discover Web services.
D. Currently WSF only supports J2EE clients. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which statement is true about Connection Brokers?
A. A Connection Broker is not required in order to establish a session between DFCapplication and Content Server.
B. To perform IP translation through a firewall, you need to have two ConnectionBrokers.
C. Load balancing across Connection Brokers is not natively supported.
D. When you shut down a Content Server, it automatically shuts down its primaryConnection Broker.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
What is the output for the code, assuming you are using a session established to Docbase C from host2?

A. null
B. Docbase C
C. Docbase B Docbase C
D. Docbase A Docbase B Docbase C

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
Which is NOT a valid interface?
A. IDfCabinet
B. IDfFolder
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfGroup

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
Click the <Exhibit> button.
Which interface is missing in the diagram? ***Missing Exhibit***

A. IDfFolder
B. IDfCabinet
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfNonPersistentObject

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A user is creating a dynamic disk on a Windows host. The first disk is fully utilized. Writes continue to the next disk. Which volume type did they select?
A. Striped
B. Spanned
C. RAID 5
D. Mirrored
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Spanned volumes – spanned volumes use disk space from 2 to 32 disks. The amount of space used on the
individual disks may vary. When data is written to a spanned volume, the portion of the volume residing on
the first disk is filled first, and then data is written to the next disk in the volume. If any disk fails in the
volume, then all data stored on that volume becomes unavailable. A spanned volume uses multiple disks,
but does not improve disk performance.

QUESTION 2
Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS?
A. CentOS
B. RedHat
C. Fedora
D. Debian
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 3
What are the severity levels available with Unisphere event notifications?
A. Critical and Informational
B. High and Low
C. Critical and Low
D. High and Warning Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 4
The preferred path to your VMware ESX host failed. Which native multi-pathing policy will revert to the preferred path when it is restored?
A. Fixed only
B. MRU only
C. Round-robin
D. Bath Fixed and MRU
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Native ESX/ESXi Multipath is managed via the configuration of a failover policy. Policy options are:

MRU (Most Recently Used) uses last active path, and does not fail back when a path is restored

Fixed (Preferred path) reverts back to preferred path when it is restored to service

Round Robin rotates the path selection between all available paths and enables basic load balancing across the paths.
This algorithm is not adaptive, so it will flip from one channel to the other with no regard for the work load unlike PowerPath, nor is it responsive to queue depth. NotE. Prior to vSphere, there was no way to load balance a LUN indigenously and customers needed to statically distribute LUNs across paths.
QUESTION 5
How does the VNX handle LUN ownership changes so that the access path to the LUN is available to both SPs simultaneously?
A. By the host software being aware of SP ownership
B. By the SPs sharing ownership of the LUNs
C. By using ALUA Failover Mode
D. By the LUN being trespassed.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ALUA (Asymmetric Logical Unit Access) is a request forwarding implementation. In other words, the LUN
is still owned by a single SP however, if I/O is received by an SP that does not own a LUN, that I/O is
redirected to the owning SP. It ‘s redirected using a communication method to pass I/O to the other SP.

QUESTION 6
Where in Unisphere do you assign FAST Cache to LUNs?
A. At the LUN level under a RAID group
B. At the LUN level under a storage pool
C. Under FAST Cache system properties
D. Under the Advanced tab of RAIDGROUP Properties
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
In a VNX array with FAST VP enabled, what is the size of the data slice (chunk) that can be relocated between tiers?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: For example, if you have Flash (SSD) disks, SAS disks, and NL-SAS disks in the pool, the Flash disks form a tier, the SAS disks form a tier, and the NL-SAS disks form a tier. Based on your input or internally computed usage statistics, portions of LUNs ( 1GB slices) can be moved between tiers to maintain a service level close to the highest performing storage tier in the pool, even when some portion of the pool consists of lower performing (less expensive) disks. The tiers from highest to lowest are Flash, SAS, and NL-SAS. FAST is not supported for RAID groups because all the disks in a RAID group, unlike in a pool, must be of the same type (all Flash, all FC, or all SATA). The lowest performing disks in a RAID group determine a RAID group’s overall performance.
QUESTION 8
What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9
What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for Block?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 32
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For all Linux environments, EMC supports up to 16 Fibre Channel initiator ports on a single host. The host
initiators may be single or dual channel HBAs.

QUESTION 10
An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host, but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share
C. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is a limitation in exporting a subdirectory and setting a quota on a file system from Windows
2000/2003/08. You will not see a quotas tab when exporting at the subdirectory level.

QUESTION 11
Which utility on a Windows server can be used to view the HBA WWN details?
A. Unisphere Host Agent
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. HBAnywhere
D. Device Manager
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
An administrator has finished configuring the zoning on their MDS-series switch and issues the following command:
zoneset activate name ActiveZS vsan 100
What happens?
A. Zoneset ActiveZS is activated on VSAN 100
B. Zoneset ActiveZS is created on VSAN 100
C. VSAN 100 is created and activated.
D. VSAN 100 is named ActiveZS Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It supports the separation of CIFS servers and their shares
B. It enables the replication of NFS exports
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover.
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 14
If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured clone LUN?
A. Neither the clone LUN nor the fracture logs will be acquired by the peer SP
B. The peer SP acquires the fracture logs.
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the fracture logs.
D. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system?
A. <username>
B. <username>@FQDN
C. <domain>\<username>
D. <username>.FGDN
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Student guide of VNX
QUESTION 16
An administrator exports a newly created file system and finds two directories, called etc and lost+found. The administrator does not want these directions to appear in the export. What should the administrator do to address this issue?
A. The administrator should delete the directories
B. Create a subdirectory below the root of the file system and export it
C. Nothing, this is normal and these two directories will show in all exports
D. The administrator should change the attribute of these directories to hidden
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: When an uxfs file system is created, by default it contains at its root level two key directories; .etc and lost +found. These directories are extremely important to the function and integrity of the file system. The .etc directory contains configuration files and lost+found contains files that are restored after a system crash, or when a partition has not been unmounted before a system shutdown. In order to keep these directories safe, export a directory instead of the root file system. This procedure hides theses directories protecting them from being removed, or accessed by non-administrators users on the enterprise network.
QUESTION 17
Which CLI command displays the IP configuration of each Data Mover?
A. server_ifconfig
B. /sbin/ifconfig
C. server_sysconfig
D. server_devconfig
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To display the IP configuration from the Top Navigation Bar click Settings > Network >Settings for File >
Interfaces
NotE. When deleting or modifying an IP configuration for an interface, remember to update the appropriate
CIFS servers that may be using that interface and any NFS exports that may depend on the changed
interface.
To display the IP configuration using CLI you can use the server_ifconfig command.
Example:
$ server_ifconfig server_2 all

QUESTION 18
You are planning to add a new DAE to a VNX storage system. Doing so will exceed the supported total drive count by four drives. What impact will this have on the operation of the VNX system?
A. The DAE will be recognized but four drive slots will not function.
B. All slots on the DAE will be available for use.
C. Connecting the new DAE will take the bus offline.
D. The DAE can be physically connected, but will not be available.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bytes
B. 1024 bits
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bits
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 20
Which VNX feature is used to reclaim unused storage space?
A. LUN migration
B. LUN shrink
C. Thin provisioning
D. RAID group defragment Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 21
Which host collection utility can be run on Linux to collect logs, hardware, driver, and patch information for submission to E-Lab Advisor?
A. EMC Grab
B. EMC Collect
C. EMC HEAT
D. EMC Reports Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
What is the back-end bus speed, per lane, on the VNX series array?
A. 2 Gb
B. 4 Gb
C. 6 Gb
D. 8 Gb Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 23
MX series array, how does FAST manage data in a heterogeneous storage pool?
A. It relocates more active data from tier 1 storage without users noticing the difference
B. It relocates more active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives
C. It acts as an application accelerator and relocates LUNs based on performance
D. It relocates LUNs from one tier to another to improve performance
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fast enables the customer to create storage pools with heterogeneous device classes (Flash, SAS, and
NLSAS) and will place the data on the class of devices or tier that is most appropriate for the block of data.
Storage pools allocate and store data in 1 GB slices, these slices can be migrated or relocated allowing
FAST to reorganize LUNs onto different tiers of the pool seamlessly to the hosts accessing the LUNs.

QUESTION 24
What does the acronym “CHAP” refer to?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
B. Challenge Handshake Authorization Protocol
C. CLARiiON Handshake Authentication
D. Consistent Host Application Protocol
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
What is the CLI command to enable Access Logix?
A. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -on
B. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable
C. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -enable
D. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup on
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The CLI equivalent is the command “naviseccli h <SP_name> storagegroup enable”. Once enabled, Access Logix can be disabled only via the CLI command “naviseccli h <SP_name> sc_off ”

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QUESTION 1
Which segment size(s) is used by EMC Data Domain SISL?
A. 4 – 12 KB
B. 16 – 32 KB
C. 24 and 44 KB
D. 128 KB

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
What does the EMC Data Domain file level retention locking feature provide?
A. Active archive protection for IT governance
B. Instant restoration of applications and data
C. Built-in data safety for extended onsite retention
D. Offline availability of archive data

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Which method of deduplication yields better deduplication results for multiple data types?
A. Variable segment size due to its ability to split the data stream into segments
B. Variable segment size due to its ability to add data to a variable segment and move the data stream
C. Fixed segment-based due to its ability to allow sub-file chunking of data
D. Fixed segment size due to its ability to add data to a fixed segment and move the data stream

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
You have deployed an EMC Data Domain system in a customer environment. Recently, the customer expressed concerns regarding data integrity issues.
Which Data Domain system attributes protect against stored data corruption?
A. Checksum, self-healing file system, and RAID 6
B. Checksum, RAID 5, and snapshots
C. Compression, NVRAM, and snapshots
D. File system verification, snapshots, and RAID 6

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Where does in-line deduplication occur in an EMC Data Domain (DD) system?
A. DD RAM
B. DD Boost
C. DD NVRAM
D. DD CPU

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
A customer is deploying EMC Data Domain systems in four data centers worldwide. The Data Domain systems will be using VTL. Each system will have a unique tape pool.
The customer wants to replicate data to all sites. The data needs to be encrypted locally and then replicated to remote sites over the WAN.
What needs to be deployed to meet the customer’s requirements?
A. Encryption of Data at Rest and pool replication with encryption enabled
B. Encryption of Data at Rest and collection replication with encryption enabled
C. Pool replication with encryption enabled
D. Collection replication with encryption enabled

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
When a customer deploys an EMC Data Domain system at a remote location that does not have an IT staff, what type of remote management method(s) is possible?
A. Managed with IPMI and SOL commands
B. Managed with IPMI commands only
C. Managed with SOL commands only
D. Managed with iDRAC and SOL commands

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
An organization currently writes backups to an EMC Data Domain system and then creates encrypted copies of their backups on tapes. These tapes are then shipped to a third-party offsite vault.
They are now planning to deploy a second Data Domain system in a hosted disaster recovery site as a replication target. This will replace the use of the offsite tapes. The two sites are connected through an encrypted WAN link.
Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems to ensure a similar level of data security as their current process?
A. Enable Encryption of Data at Rest at the disaster recovery site
B. Use encryption of data in flight to the hosted disaster recovery site
C. Enable Encryption of Data at Rest at the source site
D. WAN link between the sites is already encrypted

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
What is a characteristic of EMC Data Domain collection replication?
A. Replication destination is dedicated to receiving data only from the source
B. Unique user accounts and passwords need to be configured on the replication destination
C. Replication destination directory can also be used as a target for backups
D. Replication destination must be at least twice the size of the source

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
An EMC Data Domain customer wants VTL replication functionality. Which licensing option is required?
A. A single VTL license applied to the source Data Domain. A Replicator license applied to both the source and destination Data Domains.
B. A VTL license applied to both the source and destination Data Domains.
C. A single VTL license applied to the destination Data Domain. A Replicator license applied to both the source and destination Data Domains.
D. A Replicator license applied only to the source Data Domain.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Which hardware and capacity license options are available for an EMC Data Domain system?
A. Expanded-Storage, Capacity-Active, DD Extended Retention, and Capacity-Archive
B. Expanded-Storage, DD Extended Retention, Capacity-Active, Global Deduplication, and Capacity-Archive
C. Expanded-Storage, Capacity-Active, Gateway, and Capacity-Archive
D. Expanded-Storage, Global Compression, and DD Extended Retention

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
You are an administrator for an EMC Data Domain system. Recent corporate policy changes mandate the following:
1.
Database files must be retained for a 7-year period.

2.
After the 7-year time period, the files must be permanently destroyed.

3.
Data exposure must be minimized when disk-based hardware is shipped. Which Data Domain software licenses need to be applied to the system?
A. Retention Lock and Encryption
B. Encryption and VTL with NDMP
C. DD Boost and Encryption
D. Retention Lock and Replication

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Which two licenses are tied to capacity on an EMC Data Domain system?
A. Expanded and shelf capacity
B. Added storage and shelf extension
C. Storage expansion and shelf capacity
D. Expanded shelf and expanded capacity

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
What is the name of the dedicated IPMI management Ethernet port on an EMC Data Domain system?
A. bmc0a
B. bmc-eth01
C. bmc-eth02
D. bmc-eth0a

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 15
You are installing an EMC Data Domain system with two expansion shelves in a customer- provided rack. When cabling the controller to the shelves, where does the host port on the last shelf in the chain get
connected?
A. Expansion port of the upstream shelf
B. Expansion port of the controller
C. Last port is left un-cabled
D. Host port of the controller

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
What is indicated by a flashing green LED on an EMC Data Domain Expansion Shelf SAS Controller?
A. Connection in process
B. Disk in use
C. Connection established
D. Connection problem

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Refer to the Exhibit.

When connecting a single expansion shelf to a EMC Data Doman controller, what are the recommended SAS ports that should be used?
A. 3a and 2a
B. 3a and 2b
C. 3b and 2a
D. 3b and 2b

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
Refer to the Exhibit.

When creating a second shelf chain on a EMC Data Doman controller, what are the two
recommended SAS ports that should be used?
A. 3a and 2a
B. 3a and 2b
C. 3b and 2a
D. 3b and 2b

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19
You are installing an EMC Data Domain system with two expansion shelves in a customer- provided rack. When cabling the controller to the shelves, where does the expansion port on the last shelf get connected?
A. Expansion port is left un-cabled
B. Host port on the controller
C. Host port on the other expansion shelf
D. Expansion port on the controller

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
If you have a 2U EMC Data Domain Controller with three expansion shelves, what is the total rack space needed?
A. 8U
B. 9U
C. 11U
D. 14U

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
In an EMC Data Domain environment, when are cage nuts used?
A. Square hole rack fastening
B. Rack-to-rack fastening
C. Round hole rack fastening
D. Tapped hole rack fastening

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
A customer’s EMC Data Domain system has an Ethernet port called “bmc0a”. What is the purpose of this Ethernet port?
A. Dedicated Ethernet port for IPMI, providing “out-of-band” access
B. Shared Ethernet port for IPMI, providing “sideband” access
C. Dedicated Ethernet port for data and administration purposes
D. Dedicated Ethernet port for IPMI, providing “sideband” access

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
What are the states of the SAS LED connection status indicators at the back of an EMC Data Domain ES20?
A. White, flashing green, solid green, amber
B. Red, flashing green, solid green, amber
C. White, solid green, flashing amber
D. Flashing red, flashing green, solid green, amber

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
What is the current NAA type in the WWN format used within EMC Data Domain OS 5.4?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
What changed in the WWN format of the EMC Data Domain OS 5.4?
A. NAA type 5
B. First segment
C. Last segment
D. NAA type 1

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
What can an optional PCI-x Card slot be used for on an EMC Data Domain system?
A. 1 GbE, 10 GbE, HBA VTL, SAS HBA only
B. 1 GbE, 10 GbE, SAS HBA only
C. 1 GbE and SAS HBA only
D. 1 GbE, 10 GbE, HBA VTL only

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Which command is used to check the SAS HBA card status on an EMC Data Domain system?
A. disk port show summary
B. enclosure show summary
C. storage show all
D. scsitarget show detailed-stats

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
What is the default password on a new EMC Data Domain system?
A. serial number
B. abc123
C. sysadmin
D. changeme

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
A customer environment has an EMC Data Domain system with Data Domain Extended Retention

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QUESTION NO: 1

Adam, a malicious hacker has successfully gained unauthorized access to the Linux system of
Umbrella Inc. Web server of the company runs on Apache. He has downloaded sensitive documents and database files from the computer. After performing these malicious tasks, Adam finally runs the following command on the Linux command box before disconnecting. for (( i = 0;i<11;i++ )); do
dd if=/dev/random of=/dev/hda && dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/hda done
Which of the following actions does Adam want to perform by the above command?
A. Making a bit stream copy of the entire hard disk for later download.
B. Deleting all log files present on the system.
C. Wiping the contents of the hard disk with zeros.
D. Infecting the hard disk with polymorphic virus strings.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States. A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?
A. Trademark law
B. Cyber law
C. Copyright law
D. Espionage law
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. You install Windows 98 on a computer. By default, which of the following folders does Windows 98 setup use to keep the registry tools?

A. $SYSTEMROOT$REGISTRY
B. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWS
C. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWSREGISTRY
D. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWSSYSTEM32
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following tools can be used to perform tasks such as Windows password cracking, Windows enumeration, and VoIP session sniffing?
A. John the Ripper
B. L0phtcrack
C. Obiwan
D. Cain
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following type of file systems is not supported by Linux kernel?
A. vFAT
B. NTFS
C. HFS
D. FAT32
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following modules of OS X kernel (XNU) provides the primary system program interface?

A. BSD

B. LIBKERN
C. I/O Toolkit
D. Mach
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
You work as a Network Administrator for Blue Bell Inc. You want to install Windows XP Professional on your computer, which already has Windows Me installed. You want to configure your computer to dual boot between Windows Me and Windows XP Professional. You have a single 40GB hard disk.
Which of the following file systems will you choose to dual-boot between the two operating systems?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. CDFS
D. FAT
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He receives the following e-mail:

The e-mail that John has received is an example of .
A. Virus hoaxes
B. Spambots
C. Social engineering attacks
D. Chain letters

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following Acts enacted in United States allows the FBI to issue National Security Letters (NSLs) to Internet service providers (ISPs) ordering them to disclose records about their customers?
A. Wiretap Act
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
C. Economic Espionage Act of 1996
D. Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 10
TCP FIN scanning is a type of stealth scanning through which the attacker sends a FIN packet to the target port. If the port is closed, the victim assumes that this packet was sent mistakenly by the attacker and sends the RST packet to the attacker. If the port is open, the FIN packet will be ignored and the port will drop the packet. Which of the following operating systems can be easily identified with the help of TCP FIN scanning?
A. Solaris
B. Red Hat
C. Knoppix
D. Windows
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following encryption methods uses AES technology?
A. Dynamic WEP
B. Static WEP

C. TKIP
D. CCMP Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Mark works as a security manager for SofTech Inc. He is using a technique for monitoring what the employees are doing with corporate resources. Which of the following techniques is being used by Mark to gather evidence of an ongoing computer crime if a member of the staff is e-mailing company’s secrets to an opponent?
A. Electronic surveillance
B. Civil investigation
C. Physical surveillance
D. Criminal investigation
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following is the first computer virus that was used to infect the boot sector of storage media formatted with the DOS File Allocation Table (FAT) file system?
A. Melissa
B. Tequila
C. Brain
D. I love you
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following attacks saturates network resources and disrupts services to a specific computer?
A. Teardrop attack
B. Polymorphic shell code attack

C. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
D. Replay attack Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 15
Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect’s computer runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, internet traces
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
D. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, internet traces
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. He is responsible for securing all 15 servers of the company. To successfully accomplish the task, he enables the hardware and software firewalls and disables all unnecessary services on all the servers. Sales manager of the company asks Adam to run emulation software on one of the servers that requires the telnet service to function properly. Adam is concerned about the security of the server, as telnet can be a very large security risk in an organization. Adam decides to perform some footprinting, scanning, and penetration testing on the server to checkon the server to check the security. Adam telnets into the server and writes the following command:
HEAD / HTTP/1.0
After pressing enter twice, Adam gets the following results: Which of the following tasks has Adam just accomplished?
A. Poisoned the local DNS cache of the server.
B. Submitted a remote command to crash the server.
C. Grabbed the banner.
D. Downloaded a file to his local computer.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
The MBR of a hard disk is a collection of boot records that contain disk information such as disk architecture, cluster size, and so on. The main work of the MBR is to locate and run necessary operating system files that are required to run a hard disk. In the context of the operating system, MBR is also known as the boot loader. Which of the following viruses can infect the MBR of a hard disk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Stealth
B. Boot sector
C. Multipartite
D. File
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 18
You work as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for DataEnet Inc. You want to investigate e-mail information of an employee of the company. The suspected employee is using an online e-mail system such as Hotmail or Yahoo. Which of the following folders on the local computer will you review to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. History folder
B. Temporary Internet Folder
C. Download folder
D. Cookies folder
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following methods is used by forensic investigators to acquire an image over the network in a secure manner?
A. DOS boot disk
B. Linux Live CD
C. Secure Authentication for EnCase (SAFE)
D. EnCase with a hardware write blocker
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
You company suspects an employee of sending unauthorized emails to competitors. These emails are alleged to contain confidential company data. Which of the following is the most important step for you to take in preserving the chain of custody?

A. Preserve the email server including all logs.
B. Make copies of that employee’s email.
C. Seize the employee’s PC.
D. Place spyware on the employee’s PC to confirm these activities.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is the correct order of loading system files into the main memory of the system, when the computer is running on Microsoft’s Windows XP operating system?
A. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
B. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, NTDETECT.com, HAL.dll, NTOSKRNL.exe
C. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
D. BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTLDR, NTOSKRNL.exe
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
Fill in the blank with the appropriate name.
is a list, which specifies the order of volatility of data in a Windows based system.
A. RFC 3227
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following file systems provides file-level security?
A. CDFS
B. FAT
C. FAT32

D. NTFS Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He is informed by the senior authorities that the server of the marketing department has been affected by a malicious hacking attack. Supervisors are also claiming that some sensitive data are also stolen. Adam immediately arrived to the server room of the marketing department and identified the event as an incident. He isolated the infected network from the remaining part of the network and started preparing to image the entire system. He captures volatile data, such as running process, ram, and network connections.
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process is being performed by Adam?
A. Recovery
B. Eradication
C. Identification
D. Containment
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following is the process of overwriting all addressable locations on a disk?
A. Drive wiping
B. Spoofing
C. Sanitization
D. Authentication
Answer: A

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QUESTION: 1
Below is a partial diagram of the processing that occurs when a user launches saved output in
At the level ofthe dispatcher, which of the IBM Cognos BI services is used to process the request?
A. Report service
B. Presentation service
C. Batch report service
D. Delivery service
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
How must the gateway component be configured when there are multiple report servers in a distributed installation to ensure failover?
A. The gateway must be configured to know the location of the content store.
B. The gateway must be configured to know the location of a single dispatcher. C. The gateway must be configured to know the location of multiple dispatchers. D. The gateway must be configured to know the location of the content manager.
Answer: C QUESTION: 3

Which is a valid option for load balancing requests across report servers?
A. Configure dedicated web servers.
B. Rely on automatic load balancing weighted round robin.
C. Configure dispatchers together with the gateway.
D. Configure load balancing to cluster compatible.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
From within IBM Cognos Connection, what must an administrator deploy to move an entire IBM Cognos BI application into a new and empty environment?
A. Content store
B. All folders within Public Folders
C. Notification store
D. Content manager
Answer: A

QUESTION: 5
When creating the following IBM Cognos BI data sources, which one requires specifying a local path or a network path?
A. IBM Cognos TM1
B. IBM Cognos PowerCube
C. IBM Cognos Now! – Real-time Monitoring Cube
D. SAP BW
Answer: B
QUESTION: 6

The Report Upgrade task in IBM Cognos Connection provides options for upgrading report specifications. Which of the following is one option?
A. By folder
B. By role
C. By group
D. By user profile
Answer: A

QUESTION: 7
When an administrator exports entries from IBM Cognos 10, what file gets created?
A. Database backup file
B. Object extract file
C. Deployment archive file
D. Configuration export file
Answer: C

QUESTION: 8
What can an administrator create to ensure that multiple users do not have to enter database credentials when they run reports?
A. Signon
B. Single signon
C. Collation sequence
D. Connection sequence
Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
In Report Studio, what can an author do to organize list data into logical sections?
A. Insert a table.
B. Add a header or footer.
C. Pivot the list to a crosstab.
D. Modify the Spacing & Breaking property.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
In the report shown,

users click on the Product line link to navigate to the specific product line in the list below. Users can also click on the Top link to return to the Product line list at the top of the report. Bookmarks are used to control this drill-through behavior. How is each of the drill-throughs defined for this report to function as described?
A. Product line drill-through: bookmark source type = Text, where Text =Top;Top drill-through: bookmark source type = Data Item Value, where Data Item = Product line
B. Product line drill-through: bookmark source type = Data Item Label, where Data Item = Product line;Top drill-through: bookmark source type = Text, where Text =Top

C. Product line drill-through: bookmark source type = Data Item Value, where Data Item = Product line;Top drill-through: bookmark source type = Text, where Text =Top
D. Product line drill-through: bookmark source type = Text, where Text = Top;Top drill-through: bookmark source type = Data Item Value, where Data Item = Product line
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
In Report Studio, a report contains several blocks and tables. To determine if there is sufficient space between objects, what will show how the report looks when it is generated?
A. View a Print Preview.
B. Hide the boundary lines.
C. Unlock the report objects.
D. Open the Page Structure view.

Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
In the report shown in the image,

users click on the Retailer name in the left and see the related data on the right. What is the technique used to create this report?
A. Master-detail relationship where the master and the detail is in a separate list B. Drill-through definition where one column in a list drills through to a separate list in the same report

C. Master-detail relationship where the master and the detail is in the same list
D. Drill-through definition where one column in a list drills through to the same list in the same report
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
In Report Studio, where can an author modify a global class to apply a change to all objects that use that class?
A. Page Explorer
B. Query Explorer
C. Conditional Explorer
D. Page Structure view
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
In a Report Studio report, to add white space around text within a block, which of the following properties must be set to the block?
A. Positioning
B. Size & Overflow
C. Padding
D. Margin
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
The following steps are used to create an agent in Event Studio. Which sequence logically orders the items from first to last?Add a task Schedule the agent Specify an event condition Specify the task execution rules

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4,2
C. 3,1,4,2
D. 3,4,1,2
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
In Event Studio, which of the following tasks are available to a report author?
A. Run an agent
B. Run an export
C. Run an import
D. Run an index update
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
In Event Studio, which definition best describes the event key?
A. The object that is created in Event Studio.
B. Specific occurrence of data items that an agent must detect.
C. One or more data items that uniquely define an event instance.
D. The set of detected event instances that satisfy the task execution rules.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
In Report Studio, if an author adds a prompt to a report page containing a list, how can the author prevent an automatically generated prompt from appearing when the report runs?

A. Add a Static Choice
B. Specify a Default Selection
C. Set the Auto-Submit property to Yes
D. Change the Required property to No
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
In Report Studio, when should authors use a Generated Prompt?
A. They only want the user to be able to choose one option.
B. They are unsure of the most appropriate prompt type to choose.
C. They want to use the same prompt on a prompt page and a report page.
D. They want the options to be based on selections made in another prompt.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
In Report Studio, why would an author create Static Choices for a prompt?
A. To provide prompt options that are not found in the data source.
B. So that the prompt appears with an option selected by default.
C. To provide default values to satisfy a parameter so a prompt page will not appear.
D. So that the items that appear in the prompt depend on items selected in another prompt.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
An author wants to create a filter on this report to only show Product line totals larger than 1 billion.
What calculation is used to create this filter?
A. Detail filter as: [Total (Revenue)] for [Product line] >1000000000Application = After auto aggregation
B. Detail filter as: [Total (Revenue)]>1000000000Scope = Product line
C. Summary filter as: [Total(Revenue)]>1000000000Scope = Product line
D. Summary filter as: [Total(Revenue)] for [Product line]>1000000000)Application = After auto aggregation
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
The following report was created in Report Studio using a relational package and shows revenue by sales rep, city, and country.
What will the report show if the author creates a detail filter for Revenue>500,000 and applies the filter AFTER auto aggregation?
A. Only reps who generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
B. Only cities that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
C. Only countries that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
D. Only reps who had individual sales transactions of greater than 500,000.
Answer: A Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 1
How can currency conversion be verified after running a consolidation?
A. Check the log report that appears after consolidation is run.
B. Execute the calculation report created for currency conversion.
C. Run the Currency Conversion report for the group company.
D. Run the journals across report for the group after consolidation.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
A multi-page Excel Link report contains several Controller functions on every worksheet. In order to improve performance when running the report, how should the functions be organized in the report?
A. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the last Excel worksheet.
B. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the first Excel worksheet
C. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets, and hidden in system columns A. B, and
C.
D. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets. and hidden in system rows 1 to 27.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
The administrator activated the Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation and the Use Period Locking on Company Level. What is the effect?
A. Submissions and reconciliations are locked and company status is set to ready
B. Company status is set to ready and submissions and reconciliations are started
C. Company status is set to ready and submissions are locked if reconciliations cleared
D. Submission is allowed only once per company when status is set to ready

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
Why is the offset account for certain investment elimination control tables the same?
A. So that investment and intercompany eliminations are able to perform the same calculations
B. So that automatic journals make a zero sum in the offset account in the consolidated group
C. So that currency conversion is easily performed and reconciled in the consolidated group
D. So that when the administrator copies opening balances to another period, the administrator can reconcile and differences
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
End users need to enter data related to intercompany transactions into the Controller system. What must the administrator set up to enable users to enter this data?
A. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and transaction currencies
B. Counter company information and extended dimensions
C. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and include the accounts on a form
D. Counter company information and transaction currencies
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
When importing external data files using import specification, which of the following are compulsory fields in the upload file?
A. Period, Consolidation Type. Company, Submission, Account, Amount
B. Period, Actuality, Company, Currency, Account, Amount
C. Period, Actuality,Company,Consolidation Type, Account, Amount
D. Period,Submission, Company,Currency,Account, Amount
QUESTION NO: 7
An administrator is creating a standard data entry form for end users. On which tab must the administrator specify the type of information that will be shown on the rows and columns of the form?

A. Axes tab
B. Reorder tab
C. Process Layouts tab
D. Lock tab
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following tools could be used to load data into the Controller staging tables?
A. IBM Controller Import Specification wizard
B. IBM Cognos Data Manager
C. IBM Cognos Configuration
D. IBM Cognos Controller Excel Link
Answer: B

The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions will a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form
C. Enter data into group journals
D. Create company journals
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Why would a Controller administrator create a form set?
A. To enable end users to enter data for a particular extended dimension
B. To enable end users to enter data for a particular account
C. To enable end users to enter data for a particular submission
D. To enable end users to enter data for a particular company
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
In how many submissions can a form be included for the same actuality and period?

A. 6
B. 1
C. 10
D. no limitation
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11
The administrator notices that each party to an intercompany transaction uses a different cost center in the same transaction. What does the administrator need to include to match cost centers?
A. Calculation Account
B. Conversion Method
C. Counter Dimension
D. Reversing Journal
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 12
An administrator wants to enhance data analysis by adding extended dimensions to the Controller application (for example, to represent the products that the company sells). What is the maximum number of levels for extended dimensions that the administrator can add to the system?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
After the administrator identifies and activates the automatic journals that will be used, what is the next step in enabling automatic journal entries?
A. Set up a closing version.
B. Setup intercompany accounts.
C. Set up a control table
D. Set up summation accounts.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Your cluster’s mapred-start.xml includes the following parameters
<name>mapreduce.map.memory.mb</name> <value>4096</value> <name>mapreduce.reduce.memory.mb</name> <value>8192</value>
And any cluster’s yarn-site.xml includes the following parameters
<name>yarn.nodemanager.vmen-pmen-ration</name> <value>2.1</value>
What is the maximum amount of virtual memory allocated for each map task before YARN will kill its Container?
A. 4 GB
B. 17.2 GB
C. 8.9 GB
D. 8.2 GB
E. 24.6 GB

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Assuming you’re not running HDFS Federation, what is the maximum number of NameNode daemons you should run on your cluster in order to avoid a “split-brain” scenario with your NameNode when running HDFS High Availability (HA) using Quorum-based storage?
A. Two active NameNodes and two Standby NameNodes
B. One active NameNode and one Standby NameNode
C. Two active NameNodes and on Standby NameNode
D. Unlimited. HDFS High Availability (HA) is designed to overcome limitations on the number of NameNodes you can deploy

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Table schemas in Hive are:
A. Stored as metadata on the NameNode
B. Stored along with the data in HDFS
C. Stored in the Metadata
D. Stored in ZooKeeper

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
For each YARN job, the Hadoop framework generates task log file. Where are Hadoop task log files stored?
A. Cached by the NodeManager managing the job containers, then written to a log directory on the NameNode
B. Cached in the YARN container running the task, then copied into HDFS on job completion
C. In HDFS, in the directory of the user who generates the job
D. On the local disk of the slave mode running the task

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You have a cluster running with the fair Scheduler enabled. There are currently no jobs running on the cluster, and you submit a job A, so that only job A is running on the cluster. A while later, you submit Job B. now Job A and Job B are running on the cluster at the same time. How will the Fair Scheduler handle these two jobs? (Choose two)
A. When Job B gets submitted, it will get assigned tasks, while job A continues to run with fewer tasks.
B. When Job B gets submitted, Job A has to finish first, before job B can gets scheduled.
C. When Job A gets submitted, it doesn’t consumes all the task slots.
D. When Job A gets submitted, it consumes all the task slots.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Each node in your Hadoop cluster, running YARN, has 64GB memory and 24 cores. Your yarn.site.xml
has the following configuration:

<property>
<name>yarn.nodemanager.resource.memory-mb</name>
<value>32768</value>
</property>
<property>
<name>yarn.nodemanager.resource.cpu-vcores</name>
<value>12</value>
</property>

You want YARN to launch no more than 16 containers per node. What should you do?

A. Modify yarn-site.xml with the following property: <name>yarn.scheduler.minimum-allocation-mb</name> <value>2048</value>
B. Modify yarn-sites.xml with the following property: <name>yarn.scheduler.minimum-allocation-mb</name> <value>4096</value>
C. Modify yarn-site.xml with the following property: <name>yarn.nodemanager.resource.cpu-vccores</name>
D. No action is needed: YARN’s dynamic resource allocation automatically optimizes the node memory and cores

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You want to node to only swap Hadoop daemon data from RAM to disk when absolutely necessary. What should you do?
A. Delete the /dev/vmswap file on the node
B. Delete the /etc/swap file on the node
C. Set the ram.swap parameter to 0 in core-site.xml
D. Set vm.swapfile file on the node
E. Delete the /swapfile file on the node

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You are configuring your cluster to run HDFS and MapReducer v2 (MRv2) on YARN. Which two daemons needs to be installed on your cluster’s master nodes? (Choose two)
A. HMaster
B. ResourceManager
C. TaskManager
D. JobTracker
E. NameNode
F. DataNode

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9
You observed that the number of spilled records from Map tasks far exceeds the number of map output records. Your child heap size is 1GB and your io.sort.mb value is set to 1000MB. How would you tune your io.sort.mb value to achieve maximum memory to disk I/O ratio?
A. For a 1GB child heap size an io.sort.mb of 128 MB will always maximize memory to disk I/O
B. Increase the io.sort.mb to 1GB
C. Decrease the io.sort.mb value to 0
D. Tune the io.sort.mb value until you observe that the number of spilled records equals (or is as close to equals) the number of map output records.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You are running a Hadoop cluster with a NameNode on host mynamenode, a secondary NameNode on host mysecondarynamenode and several DataNodes.
Which best describes how you determine when the last checkpoint happened?
A. Execute hdfs namenode report on the command line and look at the Last Checkpoint information
B. Execute hdfs dfsadmin saveNamespace on the command line which returns to you the last checkpoint value in fstime file
C. Connect to the web UI of the Secondary NameNode (http://mysecondary:50090/) and look at the “Last Checkpoint” information
D. Connect to the web UI of the NameNode (http://mynamenode:50070) and look at the “Last Checkpoint” information

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What does CDH packaging do on install to facilitate Kerberos security setup?
A. Automatically configures permissions for log files at & MAPRED_LOG_DIR/userlogs
B. Creates users for hdfs and mapreduce to facilitate role assignment
C. Creates directories for temp, hdfs, and mapreduce with the correct permissions
D. Creates a set of pre-configured Kerberos keytab files and their permissions
E. Creates and configures your kdc with default cluster values

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
You want to understand more about how users browse your public website. For example, you want to know which pages they visit prior to placing an order. You have a server farm of 200 web servers hosting your website. Which is the most efficient process to gather these web server across logs into your Hadoop cluster analysis?
A. Sample the web server logs web servers and copy them into HDFS using curl
B. Ingest the server web logs into HDFS using Flume
C. Channel these clickstreams into Hadoop using Hadoop Streaming
D. Import all user clicks from your OLTP databases into Hadoop using Sqoop
E. Write a MapReeeduce job with the web servers for mappers and the Hadoop cluster nodes for reducers

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which three basic configuration parameters must you set to migrate your cluster from MapReduce 1 (MRv1) to MapReduce V2 (MRv2)? (Choose three)
A. Configure the NodeManager to enable MapReduce services on YARN by setting the following property in yarn-site.xml: <name>yarn.nodemanager.hostname</name> <value>your_nodeManager_shuffle</value>
B. Configure the NodeManager hostname and enable node services on YARN by setting the following property in yarn-site.xml: <name>yarn.nodemanager.hostname</name> <value>your_nodeManager_hostname</value>
C. Configure a default scheduler to run on YARN by setting the following property in mapred- site.xml: <name>mapreduce.jobtracker.taskScheduler</name> <Value>org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobQueueTaskScheduler</value>
D. Configure the number of map tasks per jon YARN by setting the following property in mapred: <name>mapreduce.job.maps</name> <value>2</value>
E. Configure the ResourceManager hostname and enable node services on YARN by setting the following property in yarn-site.xml: <name>yarn.resourcemanager.hostname</name> <value>your_resourceManager_hostname</value>
F. Configure MapReduce as a Framework running on YARN by setting the following property in mapred-site.xml: <name>mapreduce.framework.name</name> <value>yarn</value>

Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 14
You need to analyze 60,000,000 images stored in JPEG format, each of which is approximately 25 KB. Because you Hadoop cluster isn’t optimized for storing and processing many small files, you decide to do the following actions:
1.
Group the individual images into a set of larger files

2.
Use the set of larger files as input for a MapReduce job that processes them directly with python using Hadoop streaming.
Which data serialization system gives the flexibility to do this?
A. CSV
B. XML
C. HTML
D. Avro
E. SequenceFiles
F. JSON
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15
Identify two features/issues that YARN is designated to address: (Choose two)
A. Standardize on a single MapReduce API
B. Single point of failure in the NameNode
C. Reduce complexity of the MapReduce APIs
D. Resource pressure on the JobTracker
E. Ability to run framework other than MapReduce, such as MPI
F. HDFS latency

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 16
Which YARN daemon or service monitors a Controller’s per-application resource using (e.g., memory CPU)?
A. ApplicationMaster
B. NodeManager
C. ApplicationManagerService
D. ResourceManager

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which is the default scheduler in YARN?
A. YARN doesn’t configure a default scheduler, you must first assign an appropriate scheduler class in yarn-site.xml
B. Capacity Scheduler
C. Fair Scheduler
D. FIFO Scheduler

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which YARN process run as “container 0” of a submitted job and is responsible for resource qrequests?
A. ApplicationManager
B. JobTracker
C. ApplicationMaster
D. JobHistoryServer
E. ResoureManager
F. NodeManager

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which scheduler would you deploy to ensure that your cluster allows short jobs to finish within a reasonable time without starting long-running jobs?
A. Complexity Fair Scheduler (CFS)
B. Capacity Scheduler
C. Fair Scheduler
D. FIFO Scheduler

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Your cluster is configured with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. What is the result when you execute: hadoop jar SampleJar MyClass on a client machine?
A. SampleJar.Jar is sent to the ApplicationMaster which allocates a container for SampleJar.Jar
B. Sample.jar is placed in a temporary directory in HDFS
C. SampleJar.jar is sent directly to the ResourceManager
D. SampleJar.jar is serialized into an XML file which is submitted to the ApplicatoionMaster

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
You are working on a project where you need to chain together MapReduce, Pig jobs. You also need the ability to use forks, decision points, and path joins. Which ecosystem project should you use to perform these actions?
A. Oozie
B. ZooKeeper
C. HBase
D. Sqoop
E. HUE

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which process instantiates user code, and executes map and reduce tasks on a cluster running MapReduce v2 (MRv2) on YARN?
A. NodeManager
B. ApplicationMaster
C. TaskTracker
D. JobTracker
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
G. ResourceManager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Cluster Summary:
45 files and directories, 12 blocks = 57 total. Heap size is 15.31 MB/193.38MB(7%)

Refer to the above screenshot.

You configure a Hadoop cluster with seven DataNodes and on of your monitoring UIs displays the details
shown in the exhibit.
What does the this tell you?

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QUESTION 1
As the Global Administrator of a CA Performance Management instance that hosts three tenants, you are only able to see two of the five available SNMP profiles. Why are you unable to view all five profiles?
A. Because in this instance,two profiles are associated with the tenant you are currently administering
B. Because Global Administrators typically need to refresh the screen before the full set of profiles appear
C. Because the Global Administrator must change an entry in the SNMP_549.xml file to see all SNMP profiles
D. Because the tenant administrators must change the permission of the SNMP profiles that they manage to enable the Global Administrator to see them
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
If you register a Data Aggregator data source, a system group named Collections will appear in CA Performance Center. Which feature characterizes collections?
A. They are always modifiable.
B. They are generally only used for report organization.
C. They are not tenant-specific but are always global in scope.
D. They are primarily used to control monitoring behavior using rules specified in monitoring profiles.

Answer: A
QUESTION 3
When you create or edit a monitoring profile, you can use the Change Detection Rate option to set the frequency at which the Data Aggregator checks for changes. When you set the rate of detection, the Automatically Update Metric Families check box is selected by default. What happens if you clear this check box?
A. The Change Detection Rate field will no longer be editable.
B. The automatic updating of metric families will continue unless you also change settings for specific metric families.
C. The Data Aggregator will continue to automatically monitor new components but will no longer retire old components.
D. The Events Display dashboard will need to be monitored and updates will need to be performed manually on the Polled Metric Families page.

Answer: D
QUESTION 4
How do you launch the New Vendor Certification wizard?
A. On the Inventory tab,right-click a device and click Import MIB.
B. In the Data Aggregator source,on the Vendor Certifications page,click New.
C. Use Web Services to import the vendor NIB and assign it to a particular metric family.
D. On the Vendor Certification dashboard,right-click an unassigned vendor certification and assign it to an unsupported device.

Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which statement is FALSE?
A. The groups assigned to your user account determine the data you can view on dashboards.
B. A best practice is to create groups to meet strategicIT objectives rather than business objectives.
C. In the Groups tree,Service Provider Global Groups contain items not explicitly associated with a tenant IP domain.
D. Users can use the section of the Groups tree below their permission groups to change the data context for summary or group dashboards.
Answer: B
QUESTION 6

System Administrator, Cliff Warner, asks you how he can prevent the discovery of non-SNMP enabled devices in his infrastructure. Which advice should you offer?
A. Disable ICMP on the Data Collectors.
B. Change the ICMP packet size to zero.
C. Disable ICMP discovery in the Discovery profiles.
D. Continue to permit the discovery of all devices because CA Performance Management only monitors SNMP-based devices by default.

Answer: C
QUESTION 7
While logged in as a tenant administrator you begin creating the user accounts for that tenant. You want to assign a specific role to an account. However, the role does not appear to be among the available roles. What is the likely reason for this?
A. The role has not been created.
B. The role was assigned to another tenant.
C. You do not have permission to see the role.
D. Only CA Technologies Services can perform this action.

Answer: A
QUESTION 8
To help ensure that CA Performance Center operations run smoothly, which guidelines should you follow? (Choose three)
A. Check log files daily or at least weekly.
B. Purge log files manually every two weeks to avoid performance and space issues.
C. Test the Vertica database for consistency at least once a week using DBVisualizer.
D. Only change logging levels in the log4j.xml files for a service if advised to do so by CA Technologies support.
E. If you have access to the CA Performance Center server,run the grep-i command with the appropriate keyword to search multiple log files for error instances.
Answer: A,D,E

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QUESTION NO: 1

Which appliance is a port switch that is used most often to forward/separate administrative traffic?
A. PS8
B. HALB
C. WEB5
D. INSSL
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
WS_API provides a web service interface to: (Choose two)
A. Existing business services on the grid.
B. The command-line interface (CLI)-based controller of the CA AppLogic grid.
C. One or multiple CA AppLogic grids, through a Representational State Transfer (REST)-based service.
D. Large pools of virtualized infrastructure within each Virtual Data Center (VDC), which you can programmatically control.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
If you are using a Windows computer, how do you access a Virtual Dedicated Server (VDS) for the Linux operating system?
A. Remote Desktop
B. Login (graphic) option
C. Secure Shell (SSH) from the PuTTY tool
D. Cygwin bash using the following command: windows cmd.exe shell
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4

CA AppLogic virtualizes access to which types of peripheral devices? (Choose two)
A. Serial ports
B. Tape drives
C. Block storage devices
D. Network interface cards (NICs)
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 5
You have completed the build for a new application and have had it running for two days. You decide to add monitoring capabilities to your application. After dragging a MON appliance to the grid, you use balloon connectors to connect the mon interface of all your appliances to the mon interface of the MON appliance. Then you click the Monitor button. However, the monitoring function does not work. Before you make a second attempt at running the monitoring function, what do you need to do?
A. Configure a Monitoring Policy.
B. Save and restart your application.
C. Save your application and do no more.
D. Reconstruct the application, because you cannot add a MON appliance after an application has already been running.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
In CA AppLogic, you can dynamically scale an application by using one appliance to start and stop other appliances based on a user-defined policy. Which appliance starts and stops the other appliances?
A. SLA
B. MON
C. HALB
D. NASR
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
In CA AppLogic, which type of network interface is used for connecting to other appliances?
A. Raw
B. Default
C. Terminal
D. Virtual Machine Agent (VMA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
Which statements about global load balancing (GLB) are TRUE? (Choose three)
A. It is implemented using the DR appliance.
B. A built-in algorithm calculates the shortest distance from when the request has been raised.
C. It is fully and automatically implemented in CA AppLogic by mirroring all virtual volumes on two different servers in different parts of the world.
D. It provides for high availability (HA) because it can switch to resources located in another region of the globe if a local outage or disaster occurs.
E. A master GLB site monitors the health and responsiveness of slave sites, which in turn identify the sites that are available and can offer the best response.
Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 9
How many appliances can an output terminal connect to?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 15 Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 10
Which appliance does CA AppLogic include to provide an IP table-based incoming connection gateway with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), failover, and firewall support?
A. PS8
B. HALB
C. NASR
D. INSSLR
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Before starting the WS_API application, you need to configure it to access the grids that will be managed through the web service interface. To configure WS_API, which file do you need to add to the data sub-directory on the conf volume?
A. rest.cnf
B. ccad.conf
C. vdcs.conf
D. applogic.csr
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
Which Appliance Kit (APK) component is started only if the appliance has a configured and connected monitoring terminal?
A. Secure Shell Agent (SSHA)
B. Virtual Machine Agent (VMA)
C. Counter Collection Agent (CCA)
D. Spanning Tree Protocol Agent (STPA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
You are encountering difficulties with an appliance you created. You have established that the appliance does start when you start the application. However, all the appliance properties are left at their default values in the instrumented configuration files. You verify that files are listed in the Properties tab of the class in the Class Editor. What should you do next?
A. Verify that proxy-arp is disabled on all servers.
B. Start the application with -debug flag on the app start command.
C. Verify that the /etc/applogic.sh and /etc/applogic.csh files are being created on boot.
D. Attempt to use Secure Shell (SSH) to connect to the appliance using the comp ssh command.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
In the Application Editor, the Notes tab shows free-form notes that are set on the application. You can edit the notes by double-clicking the text window, and you can also apply text formatting options available from the toolbar or the right-click menu. What is the purpose of the Unlink text formatting option?
A. Remove a hyperlink.
B. Unattach the note from a specific appliance.
C. Unattach the note from an underlying stylesheet.
D. Remove the note from an animated sequence diagram for the application.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 15

In the CA AppLogic disposable infrastructure, each appliance:
A. Runs its own operating system.
B. Is a hierarchical assembly of one or more singletons.
C. Consists of a single software component, such as JBoss, MYSQL, or Tomcat.
D. Consists of one or more applications, which are built from scratch or based on an existing application.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
The CA AppLogic WS_API application is made up of a number of components, including: (Choose three)
A. One web server.
B. One policy server.
C. One monitoring appliance.
D. One firewalled input gateway.
E. Two session-aware load balancing appliances.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 17
There is a newly migrated application, which was migrated from a data center in another country, on your grid. You are logged into CA AppLogic with admin privileges and you have access to every application on the grid. However, you are having difficulty getting the migrated application to run on your grid. What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose two)
A. The IP addresses are not valid for the new grid.
B. You did not run the Reprovision Wizard on the new application.
C. There are not enough resources on the grid for this application to run.
D. Your application does not have the correct volumes, because volumes are not migrated with the application.
Answer: A,C

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